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NAME/NOM:<br />
DATE:<br />
_________________________<br />
_________________________<br />
CORRECTED TO 100% BY / CORRIGÉ À 100% PAR:<br />
__________________________<br />
CESSNA 172S<br />
OPEN BOOK EXAM - STUDENT VERSION<br />
EXAMEN AVEC DOCUMENTATION<br />
References:<br />
Pilot's Operating Handbook<br />
<strong>Cessna</strong> Skyhawk Model 172S (2004)<br />
This open book <strong>exam</strong> is a self study guide that will help familiarize the pilot with the airplane’s<br />
systems, operating limitations, normal and emergency procedures. It should be completed<br />
prior to ground school.<br />
Page 1
SECTION 1 (SYSTEMS)<br />
1. Conventional control surfaces are operated by<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Cables.<br />
Pushrods.<br />
Electrical power.<br />
Hydraulics.<br />
2. How is rudder trim accomplished<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Rudder trim is optional in this aircraft.<br />
Through a rudder trim tab.<br />
By the use of a bungee in the control system.<br />
The rudder trim tab is adjusted on the ground.<br />
3. What precaution must be taken when moving the airplane around on the ground<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Use a tow bar if available.<br />
Use the wing struts as push points.<br />
Do not use the vertical or horizontal surfaces.<br />
All of the above.<br />
4. What type of flaps are used and how are they operated<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Simple flaps, manually operated.<br />
Fowler flaps, electrically operated.<br />
Single-slot type, electrically operated.<br />
Split flaps, automatic operation.<br />
5. Can we carry hazardous material or dangerous goods in the baggage compartment<br />
Yes<br />
No<br />
6. Should a cabin door open in flight, what is the recommended speed<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
80 KIAS.<br />
179 KIAS.<br />
Any speed.<br />
75 KIAS.<br />
7. What type of engine powers the <strong>C172S</strong><br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Continental O-300.<br />
Continental IO-320.<br />
Lycoming IO-360.<br />
Continental O-320.<br />
Page 2
8. What is the power rating at 2700 RPM<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
150 HP.<br />
160 HP.<br />
180 HP.<br />
230 HP.<br />
9. The engine of this aircraft is:<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Normally aspirated and fuel injected.<br />
Supercharged and carburetor equipped.<br />
Normally aspirated and carburetor equipped.<br />
Supercharged and fuel injected.<br />
10. How is the oil pressure reading obtained<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
By a pressure-sensing switch at the oil pump outlet.<br />
From a direct pressure oil line from the engine.<br />
By a combination of pressure line/transducer.<br />
Electrical wire from the main oil line.<br />
11. If the air filter becomes blocked what will happen<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Drop in RPM and 10% loss of engine power.<br />
Drop in manifold pressure and 15 % loss of engine power.<br />
Engine will stop.<br />
Nothing.<br />
12. Oil pressure is used by the propeller governing system.<br />
True<br />
Not applicable<br />
False<br />
13. What is the recommended oil level for extended flights<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
10 quarts.<br />
9 quarts.<br />
5 quarts.<br />
8 quarts.<br />
14. Carb heat is air heated by _________________ .<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
the carb heat control.<br />
air passing through a shroud around the muffler.<br />
the cabin heat control.<br />
Not applicable.<br />
Page 3
15. The types of fuels approved for this airplane are 100LL (blue) and 100 (green). What<br />
is the total usable fuel quantity of an aircraft with the long range tanks <br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
53 USG<br />
48 USG<br />
61 USG<br />
56 USG<br />
16. How is the left fuel tank vented<br />
(a) Interconnecting line from the right fuel tank.<br />
(b) From a vent line protruding under the left wing near the strut area.<br />
(c) From the fuel caps.<br />
(d) All of the above.<br />
17. When should the fuel tanks be drained<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
After every refuelling<br />
Before every flight<br />
(a) and (b)<br />
Only in cold weather<br />
18. The electrical system is 28 vdc. Maximum alternator output is: <br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
60 amps<br />
14 amps<br />
24 amps<br />
28 amps<br />
19. What important precaution should be taken prior to turning the master switch ON or<br />
OFF.<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Make sure the area ahead the prop is clear.<br />
Wear a hard hat.<br />
Make sure the avionics power switch is OFF.<br />
The alternator is OFF.<br />
20. The ammeter indicates_________ .<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
The load on the alternator.<br />
The charging rate applied to the alternator.<br />
The current in amps produced by the battery.<br />
Flow of current to and from the battery.<br />
21. What does the low voltage light indicate<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
That system voltage has dropped below normal<br />
That the charging rate applied to the alternator is too high<br />
Page 4
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Current is removed from the alternator field.<br />
All of the above.<br />
22. How many external static ports are provided on this airplane <br />
One.<br />
Two.<br />
23. An alternate static pressure source is provided. Where is it located <br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Under the cabin floor.<br />
Below the Throttle.<br />
Adjacent to the parking brake.<br />
On the left cowling near the normal static source.<br />
24. What instruments are vacuum driven<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
The attitude indicator and directional indicator.<br />
The turn & bank indicator ant the attitude indicator.<br />
The turn & bank indicator ant the directional indicator.<br />
The standby attitude indicator.<br />
25. The stall warning system:<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Uses electrical power.<br />
Is operated by air pressure only.<br />
Uses a whistle.<br />
Uses a red light on the upper instrument panel<br />
SECTION 2 (LIMITATIONS)<br />
26. Speed limits: Figure 2-1<br />
Vne<br />
Vno<br />
Va (2550 lbs)<br />
Vfe flaps 0-10 _______ flaps 10-30 _______<br />
27. Engine limits: Figure 2-3<br />
Maximum RPM: ______ RPM<br />
RPM green arc: _______ RPM at sea level<br />
Oil pressure green arc: _______ PSI<br />
Page 5
28. Weight limits:<br />
Maximum ramp weight: ______ lbs<br />
Maximum landing weight: ______ lbs<br />
Maximum weight in baggage area A and B:<br />
____ lbs<br />
SECTION 4 (NORMAL PROCEDURES)<br />
29. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
TakeOff 15 K / Landing 20 K<br />
TakeOff 20 K / Landing 15 K<br />
TakeOff 25 K / Landing 25 K<br />
TakeOff 15 K / Landing 15 K<br />
30. When must the Elevator Trim pre-flight be carried out (RFC Checklist)<br />
(a) Before every flight<br />
(b) Before every flight above FL250<br />
(c) Before every landing<br />
(d) During the After Start Check, before a flight when the Electric Trim is planned<br />
to be used.<br />
31. When carrying out the magneto check, what is the maximum permissible differential<br />
between magnetos<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
50 RPM<br />
100 RPM<br />
150 RPM<br />
200 RPM<br />
32. At what speed is the nose wheel lifted off for takeoff<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
60 KIAS<br />
55 KIAS<br />
57 KIAS<br />
50 KIAS<br />
33. What is the flap setting used for a short field takeoff<br />
(a) 10°<br />
(b) 20°<br />
(c) Between 10 and 20°<br />
(d) 0°<br />
Page 6
34. At what speed should the flaps be retracted after takeoff<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Between 60 and 85 KIAS<br />
95 KIAS<br />
80 KIAS<br />
60 KIAS<br />
35. What is the normal enroute climb speed<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
70 KIAS<br />
70-85 KIAS<br />
72-78 KIAS<br />
90 KIAS<br />
36. What is the Vy climb speed at sea level<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
80 KIAS<br />
74 KIAS<br />
70 KIAS<br />
85 KIAS<br />
37. What is the normal approach speed with full flaps<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
70 KIAS<br />
60-70 KIAS<br />
70-80 KIAS<br />
60 KIAS<br />
38. What is the normal approach speed for a short field landing<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
61 KIAS<br />
70-80 KIAS<br />
80 KIAS<br />
70 KIAS<br />
Page 7
39. In a balked landing, what wing flap setting should be selected and at what speed<br />
should the airplane be climbed at<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
10° and 55 KIAS<br />
20° and 60 KIAS<br />
40° and 55 KIAS<br />
20° and 55 KIAS<br />
40. What is the time limit for the oil pressure to show an indication in the summer (per<br />
RFC Checklists)<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
10 secs<br />
20 secs<br />
30 secs<br />
60 secs<br />
41. What is the maximum amount of flap deflection approved for use during take-off<br />
(a) 10°<br />
(b) 20°<br />
(c) 30°<br />
(d) 40°<br />
42. What is the best angle of climb speed with flaps up<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
60 KIAS<br />
70-80 KIAS<br />
57 KIAS<br />
62 KIAS<br />
43. What flap setting is recommended for crosswind landing<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Maximum flap setting.<br />
Maximum flap setting for the field length.<br />
Minimum flap setting.<br />
Minimum flap setting for the field length<br />
Page 8
SECTION 3 (EMERGENCY PROCEDURES)<br />
44. Where is the fire extinguisher located<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
Behind the pilot’s seat.<br />
Between the two front seats.<br />
Under the pilot’s seat.<br />
Under the right front seat<br />
45. What is the glide speed with flaps up<br />
(a)<br />
(b)<br />
(c)<br />
(d)<br />
68 KIAS<br />
75 KIAS<br />
89 KIAS<br />
100 KIAS<br />
46. Describe the procedure for an engine failure during flight.<br />
47. Describe the procedure for an engine fire in flight.<br />
48. Describe the procedure for an electrical fire in flight.<br />
49. Describe the procedure for a cabin fire in flight.<br />
Page 9