UOP FIN 571 Week 2 DQ 2
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<strong>UOP</strong> <strong>FIN</strong> <strong>571</strong> <strong>Week</strong> 2 <strong>DQ</strong> 2<br />
Suppose rf is 5% and rM is 10%. According to the SML and the<br />
CAPM, an asset with a beta of −2.0 has a required return of<br />
negative 5% [= 5 − 2(10 − 5)]. Can this be possible? Does this<br />
mean that the asset has negative risk? Why would anyone ever<br />
invest in an asset that has an expected and required return that<br />
is negative? Explain<br />
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<strong>571</strong>-<strong>Week</strong>-2-<strong>DQ</strong>-2<br />
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