general and commercial laws study i constitution of india . broad f
general and commercial laws study i constitution of india . broad f
general and commercial laws study i constitution of india . broad f
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Executive Short Notes – General <strong>and</strong> Commercial Laws.<br />
ICSI eLearning Coaching Program<br />
GENERAL AND COMMERCIAL LAWS<br />
STUDY I<br />
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA<br />
. BROAD FRAMEWORK OF THE CONSTITUTION<br />
Preamble we are sovereign, socialist , secular re-public democracy (no king)<br />
Federal in structure with unitary feature. Federal means two sets <strong>of</strong> Government<br />
Union <strong>and</strong> State.<br />
Peculiar Features <strong>of</strong> Indian Federalism<br />
o (1) The Mode <strong>of</strong> Formation states formed form total territory<br />
o (2) States were not independent<br />
o (3) The legislative power is divided in three list List I Union List, List II State<br />
List , List III Concurrent list both Union <strong>and</strong> State legislatures can pass <strong>laws</strong>.<br />
Residuary Power vests with union. Law passed by union will prevail in the<br />
event <strong>of</strong> conflict in <strong>laws</strong> passed on the subject in concurrent list<br />
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS<br />
Any democratic Government must grant some rights to citizens to ensure that<br />
democracy succeeds.<br />
Most important among them is the treatment <strong>of</strong> all individuals as equals.<br />
Right to equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18<br />
Article 12 defines state to include Central Government, State Government <strong>and</strong> also<br />
local self Governments <strong>and</strong> even Government corporations If the functions <strong>of</strong> the<br />
corporation are <strong>of</strong> public importance <strong>and</strong> closely related to government functions.<br />
Article 13 declares fundamental rights can be challenged. justice . Laws inconsistent<br />
with or in derogation <strong>of</strong> the Fundamental Rights are void <strong>and</strong> struck down by the<br />
Courts. Doctrine <strong>of</strong> Severability. If the portion law which is violative <strong>of</strong> fundamental<br />
rights can be separated then that portion will be void <strong>and</strong> rest <strong>of</strong> the law can be<br />
implemented. A law made before the commencement <strong>of</strong> the Constitution remains<br />
eclipsed or dormant to the extent it comes under the shadow <strong>of</strong> the fundamental<br />
rights. A law made before the commencement <strong>of</strong> the Constitution remains eclipsed or<br />
dormant to the extent it comes under the shadow <strong>of</strong> the fundamental rights,<br />
One thing to be noted in Article 13 is that, it is not the entire law which is affected by<br />
the provisions in Part III, but on the other h<strong>and</strong>, the law becomes invalid only to the<br />
extent to which it is inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights<br />
Article 14 <strong>of</strong> the Constitution says that “the State shall not deny to any person<br />
equality before the law or the equal protection <strong>of</strong> the <strong>laws</strong> within the territory <strong>of</strong> India<br />
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Doctrine <strong>of</strong> equality does not prevent the state from making reasonable classification.<br />
Any classification made by the Government will be considered to be reasonable. The<br />
onus <strong>of</strong> pro<strong>of</strong> is on the person who claims it to be unreasonable.<br />
Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds <strong>of</strong> religion, race. caste, sex. Pace<br />
birth or any <strong>of</strong> them. This is not only available against the state but also against the<br />
persons manning public places <strong>of</strong> entertainment , gardens, restaurants.<br />
Article 16 deals with equality in matter <strong>of</strong> public employment.<br />
By Article 17 “Untouchability” is abolished <strong>and</strong> its practice in any form is forbidden.<br />
Article 18 abolishes titles. One time recognition like Bharat Ratna or Padma awards<br />
not prohibited.<br />
Article 19 grants six freedoms viz, (a) Right to freedom <strong>of</strong> speech <strong>and</strong> expression, (b)<br />
Freedom <strong>of</strong> assembly, (c) Freedom <strong>of</strong> association, (d) Freedom <strong>of</strong> movement,(e) Freedom<br />
<strong>of</strong> residence(g) Freedom to trade <strong>and</strong> occupations<br />
These freedoms are highly important for the functioning <strong>of</strong> parliamentary democracy<br />
which is rule by majority with full freedoms <strong>and</strong> facilities to minority to convert itself in<br />
majority. These are not unrestricted.<br />
(a) The restriction can be imposed by law <strong>and</strong> not by a purely executive order issued<br />
under a statute;<br />
(b) The restriction must be reasonable;<br />
(c) The restriction must be imposed for achieving one or more <strong>of</strong> the objects specified in<br />
the respective clauses <strong>of</strong> Article 19.<br />
Article 20 guarantees to all persons — whether citizens or non-citizens-three rights—<br />
(i) Protection against ex-post facto <strong>laws</strong><br />
(ii) Protection against double jeopardy<br />
(iii) Protection against self-incrimination<br />
Article 21 confers on every person the fundamental right to life <strong>and</strong> personal<br />
liberty<br />
Article 21 does not impose a limitation on the legislature in so far as the<br />
deprivation <strong>of</strong> life or personaly liberty is concerned, yet a legislative Act<br />
providing for such deprivation is subject to the procedureal safeguards<br />
provided in Article 22<br />
Article 22 (amended by the 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978) 1 contains<br />
following safeguards against preventive detention:<br />
(a) such a person cannot be detained for a longer period than three months<br />
1 . The changes proposed by the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment), Act, 1978 have not been notified as yet.<br />
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unless:<br />
(i) An Advisory Board constituted <strong>of</strong> persons who are or have been or are<br />
qualified to be High Court judges has reported, before the expiration <strong>of</strong> the said<br />
period <strong>of</strong> three months that there is, in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.<br />
(ii) Parliament may be law prescribe the maximum period for which any person<br />
may in any class or classes <strong>of</strong> cases be detained under any law providing for<br />
preventive detention <strong>and</strong> the procedure to be followed by an Advisory Board.<br />
(b) The authority ordering the detention <strong>of</strong> a person under the preventive<br />
detention law shall:<br />
(i) communicate to him, as soon as may be, the grounds on which the order for<br />
his detention has been made, <strong>and</strong><br />
(ii) afford him the earliest opportunity <strong>of</strong> making the representation against the<br />
order.<br />
Right against Exploitation<br />
Article 23 imposes a complete ban on traffic in human beings, feudal <strong>and</strong><br />
other similar forms <strong>of</strong> forced labour<br />
Article 24 prohibits the employment <strong>of</strong> children below the age <strong>of</strong> fourteen in<br />
any factory or mine<br />
Article 25 gives to every person the:<br />
(i) freedom <strong>of</strong> conscience, <strong>and</strong><br />
(ii) the right freely to pr<strong>of</strong>ess, practice <strong>and</strong> propagate religion.<br />
But this freedom is subject to restrictions imposed by the State on the following grounds:<br />
(i) public order, morality <strong>and</strong> health,<br />
(ii) other provisions in Part III <strong>of</strong> the Constitution,<br />
(iii) any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial political or<br />
other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice, <strong>and</strong><br />
(iv) any law providing for social welfare <strong>and</strong> reform or the throwing open <strong>of</strong><br />
Hindu religious institutions <strong>of</strong> a public character to all classes <strong>and</strong> sections <strong>of</strong> Hindus.<br />
Article 26, it grants to every religious denomination or any sect there<strong>of</strong> the right—<br />
(i) to establish <strong>and</strong> maintain institutions <strong>of</strong> religious <strong>and</strong> charitable purposes;<br />
(ii) to manage its own affairs in matters <strong>of</strong> religion;<br />
(iii) to own <strong>and</strong> acquire movable <strong>and</strong> immovable property; <strong>and</strong><br />
(iv) to administer such property in accordance with law.<br />
Article 27 grants Freedom as to payment <strong>of</strong> tax for the promotion <strong>of</strong> any<br />
particular religion<br />
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Article 28 Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in<br />
educational institutions<br />
Article 29 guarantees Protection <strong>of</strong> interests <strong>of</strong> Minorities<br />
Article 30 (i) says all minorities, whether based on religion or on language, shall<br />
have the right to establish <strong>and</strong> administer educational institutions <strong>of</strong> their<br />
choice(ii) The State cannot, in granting aid to educational institutions,<br />
discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the<br />
management <strong>of</strong> a minority.<br />
Right to property is no more a fundamental right<br />
. Article 300A reads — “No person shall be deprived <strong>of</strong> his property save by<br />
authority <strong>of</strong> law”.<br />
(a) If such a law is made by a State Legislature then it cannot be protected by the<br />
provisions <strong>of</strong> Article 31A unless such law having been reserved for the<br />
consideration <strong>of</strong> the President has received his assent, <strong>and</strong><br />
(b) If the law provides for the acquisition <strong>of</strong> (i) any l<strong>and</strong> within the ceiling<br />
<br />
limit applicable in that area, (ii) any building or structure st<strong>and</strong>ing thereon or<br />
apartment thereto, it (law) shall not be valid unless it provides for payment <strong>of</strong><br />
compensation at a rate which shall not be less than the market value there<strong>of</strong>.<br />
This provision, however, has been amended by the Constitution (29th<br />
Amendment) Act.<br />
Validation <strong>of</strong> certain Acts <strong>and</strong> Regulations<br />
Article 31B certain <strong>laws</strong> against attack on the ground <strong>of</strong> violation <strong>of</strong> any<br />
fundamental rights. The <strong>laws</strong> so protected are specified in the Nineth Schedule to<br />
the Constitution. These <strong>laws</strong> also relate mainly to l<strong>and</strong> reforms.<br />
Article 31C Saves <strong>of</strong> Laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles<br />
Article 32 guarantees the enforcement <strong>of</strong> Fundamental Rights. It is remedial <strong>and</strong><br />
not substantive in nature.<br />
The Supreme Court is empowered to issue directions or orders or writs in the<br />
nature <strong>of</strong> habeas corpus, m<strong>and</strong>amus, prohibition, quo warranto <strong>and</strong> certiorari,<br />
whichever may be appropriate for the enforcement <strong>of</strong> the right, the violation <strong>of</strong><br />
which has been alleged. This power <strong>of</strong> the Supreme Court to issue directions,<br />
etc., may also be assigned to other Courts by Parliament without affecting the<br />
powers <strong>of</strong> the Supreme Court<br />
Article 33 authorises Parliament to restrict or abrogate the application <strong>of</strong><br />
fundamental rights in relation to members <strong>of</strong> armed forces, para-military forces,<br />
police forces <strong>and</strong> analogous forces.<br />
Article 34 says that Parliament may by law indemnify any person in the service <strong>of</strong><br />
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the Union or <strong>of</strong> State or any other person, for an act done during martial law.<br />
Article 35 provide that wherever parliament has by an express provision been<br />
empowered to make a law restricting a fundamental right Parliament alone can<br />
do so, (<strong>and</strong> not the state legislature).<br />
Directive Principles lay down the ideals to be observed by every Government to<br />
bring about an economic democracy in the country.<br />
No legal action is possible for not implementing directive principles<br />
Ordinance making power <strong>of</strong> President Article 123<br />
(i) this power is to be exercised by the President on the advice <strong>of</strong> his Council <strong>of</strong><br />
Ministers.<br />
(ii) the Ordinance must be laid before Parliament when it re-assembles, <strong>and</strong> shall<br />
automatically cease to have effect at the expiration <strong>of</strong> 6 weeks from the date <strong>of</strong><br />
re-assembly or before resolutions have been passed disapproving the Ordinance.<br />
(iii) the Ordinance-making power will be available to the President only when both<br />
the Houses <strong>of</strong> Parliament have been prorogued or is otherwise not in session, so<br />
that it is not possible to have a law enacted by Parliament. However, Ordinance<br />
can be made even if only one House is in Session, when law cannot be made by<br />
that House in session alone. The President’s Ordinance making power under the<br />
Constitution is not a co-ordinate or parallel power <strong>of</strong> legislation along with<br />
Legislature.<br />
Governors Ordinance making power Article 213<br />
The Governor’s power Article 213 is similar to the Ordinance making power <strong>of</strong> the<br />
President <strong>and</strong> have the force <strong>of</strong> an Act <strong>of</strong> the State Legislature<br />
While exercising this power Governor must act with the aid <strong>and</strong> advise <strong>of</strong> the<br />
Council <strong>of</strong> Ministers. But in following cases the Governor cannot promulgate any<br />
Ordinance without instructions from the President:<br />
(a) if a Bill containing the same provisions would under this <strong>constitution</strong><br />
have required the previous section <strong>of</strong> the President.<br />
(b) he would have deemed it necessary to reserve a Bill containing the<br />
same provisions for the consideration <strong>of</strong> the President.<br />
(c) an Act <strong>of</strong> the state legislature containing the same provisions would<br />
under this <strong>constitution</strong> have been invalid under having been reserved for the<br />
consideration <strong>of</strong> the President, it had received the assent <strong>of</strong> the President.<br />
Ordinance shall automatically cease to have effect at the expiration <strong>of</strong> six weeks<br />
from the date <strong>of</strong> the re-assembly unless disapproved earlier by that legislature.<br />
Territorial Distribution<br />
The Union Legislature, i.e., Parliament has the power to make <strong>laws</strong> for the whole<br />
Executive Short Notes – General <strong>and</strong> Commercial Laws.<br />
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<strong>of</strong> the territory <strong>of</strong> India or any part there<strong>of</strong>, <strong>and</strong> the State Legislatures have the<br />
power to make <strong>laws</strong> for the whole or any part <strong>of</strong> the territory <strong>of</strong> the respective<br />
States<br />
State Legislature can also make <strong>laws</strong> which may extend beyond the territory <strong>of</strong><br />
that State which two conditions, must be fulfilled: (i) the connection must be real<br />
<strong>and</strong> not illusory; <strong>and</strong> (ii) the liability sought to be imposed by that law must be<br />
pertinent to that connection.<br />
Distribution <strong>of</strong> Subject Matter <strong>of</strong> Legislation. List I is named as the Union List.<br />
List II as the State List <strong>and</strong> III as the Concurrent List. The number <strong>of</strong> entries in the<br />
respective lists is 97, 66 <strong>and</strong> 47.<br />
Notable points with respect to these lists, e.g.:<br />
(i) The entries relating to tax have been separated from other subjects <strong>and</strong> thus if a<br />
subject is included in any particular List it does not mean the power to impose tax<br />
with respect to that also follows. Apart from that, while other subjects are in the first<br />
part <strong>of</strong> the List in one group, the subjects relating to tax are given towards the end <strong>of</strong><br />
the List.<br />
(ii) . There is no tax subject included in the Concurrent List.<br />
(iii) In each List there is an entry <strong>of</strong> “fees” with respect to any matter included in that List<br />
excluding court fee. This entry is the last in all the Lists except List I where it is last<br />
but one.<br />
(iv) There is an entry each in Lists I <strong>and</strong> II relating to “<strong>of</strong>fences against <strong>laws</strong> with respect<br />
to any <strong>of</strong> the matters” included in the respective List while criminal law is a <strong>general</strong> subject in<br />
the Concurrent List<br />
Power <strong>of</strong> Parliament to make Laws on State List<br />
(a) In the National Interest (Article 249)<br />
(b) During a proclamation <strong>of</strong> emergency (Article 250)<br />
(c) Breakdown <strong>of</strong> Constitutional Machinery in a State (Article 356 <strong>and</strong> 357)<br />
(d) On the request <strong>of</strong> two or more States (Article 252)<br />
(e) Legislation for enforcing international agreements (Article 253)<br />
Interpretation <strong>of</strong> the Legislative Lists<br />
(a) Plenary Powers<br />
(b) Harmonious Construction<br />
(c) Pith <strong>and</strong> Substance Rule<br />
(d) Colourable Legislation<br />
DELEGATED LEGISLATION<br />
1. Executive Legislation rules made under the act.<br />
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2. Judicial Legislation rules made by the court<br />
3. Municipal Legislation rules made by local self governments<br />
4. Autonomous Legislation rules made by autonomous bodies like ICSI,universities<br />
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Executive Short Notes – General <strong>and</strong> Commercial Laws.<br />
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STUDY II<br />
INTERPRETATION OF STATUTES<br />
A statute is “the written will <strong>of</strong> the legislature”. Legislature knows the will <strong>of</strong> the<br />
people<br />
Interpretation or construction is the process by which the Court’s seek to ascertain<br />
the exact will <strong>of</strong> the legislature<br />
(i) Primary Rules<br />
(a) The Primary Rule : Literal Construction the words, phrases <strong>and</strong> sentences <strong>of</strong> a<br />
statute are ordinarily to be understood in their natural, ordinary sense. No words to<br />
be discarded as surplus. No words to be added.<br />
(b) The Mischief Rule or Heydon’s Rule. Law is enacted to prevent some<br />
mischief.Court tries to find what was the mischief taking place before the law was<br />
enacted <strong>and</strong> how legislature prevented it.<br />
(c) Rule <strong>of</strong> Reasonable Construction i.e. Ut Res Magis Valeat Quam Pareat<br />
If the Court considers that the litera legis is not clear, it, must interpret according to the<br />
purpose, policy or spirit <strong>of</strong> the statute (ratio-legis). It is, thus, evident that no invariable<br />
rule can be established for literal interpretation.<br />
(d) Rule <strong>of</strong> Harmonious Construction. Where in an enactment, there are two<br />
provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other, they should be so interpreted<br />
that, if possible, effect may be given to both.<br />
(e) Rule <strong>of</strong> Ejusdem Generis:<br />
the ejusdem generis rule is that, where there are <strong>general</strong> words following particular<br />
<strong>and</strong> specific words, the <strong>general</strong> words following particular <strong>and</strong> specific words must be<br />
confined to things <strong>of</strong> the same kind as those specified, unless there is a clear<br />
manifestation <strong>of</strong> a contrary purpose.<br />
ii) Other Rules <strong>of</strong> Interpretation<br />
(a) Expressio Unis Est Exclusio Alterius<br />
The rule means that express mention <strong>of</strong> one thing implies the exclusion <strong>of</strong> another<br />
(b) Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima in Lege<br />
The maxim means that a contemporaneous exposition is the best <strong>and</strong> strongest in<br />
law<br />
(c) Noscitur a Sociis:<br />
Meaning <strong>of</strong> a word should be known from its accompanying or associating words<br />
The same words bear the same meaning in the same statute<br />
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INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL AIDS IN INTERPRETATION<br />
a) Internal Aids in Interpretation<br />
All internal aids are only helpful so long as they are not contrary to main text.<br />
Title<br />
The long title <strong>of</strong> an Act is a part <strong>of</strong> the Act <strong>and</strong> is admissible as an aid to its<br />
construction. The long title sets out in <strong>general</strong> terms, the purpose <strong>of</strong> the Act <strong>and</strong> it<br />
<strong>of</strong>ten precedes the preamble<br />
Preamble<br />
The preamble may be legitimately consulted in case any ambiguity arises in the<br />
construction <strong>of</strong> an Act <strong>and</strong> it may be useful to fix the meaning <strong>of</strong> words used so as to<br />
keep the effect <strong>of</strong> the statute within its real scope.<br />
Heading <strong>and</strong> Title <strong>of</strong> a Chapter<br />
Marginal Notes some clue as to the meaning <strong>and</strong> purpose<br />
Definitions” <strong>of</strong> certain words <strong>and</strong> expressions used elsewhere in the body <strong>of</strong> the<br />
statute.<br />
Proviso. The proper function <strong>of</strong> a proviso is to except <strong>and</strong> to deal with a case which<br />
would otherwise fall within the <strong>general</strong> language <strong>of</strong> the main enactment, <strong>and</strong> its effect<br />
is confined to the case<br />
Illustrations attached to sections are part <strong>of</strong> the statute <strong>and</strong> they are useful so far as<br />
they help to furnish same indication <strong>of</strong> the presumable intention <strong>of</strong> the legislature. An<br />
explanation is at times appended to a section to explain the meaning <strong>of</strong> words<br />
contained in the section. It becomes a part <strong>and</strong> parcel <strong>of</strong> the enactment.<br />
The schedules form a part <strong>of</strong> the statute <strong>and</strong> must be read together with it for all<br />
purposes <strong>of</strong> construction<br />
The statement <strong>of</strong> objects <strong>and</strong> reasons as well as the ‘notes on clauses <strong>of</strong> the Bill<br />
relating to any particular legislation. These are helpful in applying mischief rule <strong>of</strong><br />
interpretation.<br />
(b) External Aids in Interpretation<br />
Parliamentary History <strong>and</strong> Reference to Reports <strong>of</strong> Committees help in knowing what<br />
mischief parliament wanted to prevent,<br />
Reference to other Statutes helps to what is the <strong>general</strong> scheme <strong>of</strong> law.<br />
Dictionaries help in underst<strong>and</strong>ing the ordinary meaning <strong>of</strong> the word. Use <strong>of</strong> foreign<br />
decisions <strong>of</strong> countries following the same system <strong>of</strong> jurisprudence as ours <strong>and</strong> rendered on<br />
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statutes in pari materia has been permitted by practice in Indian Court<br />
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STUDY III<br />
LAW RELATING TO SPECIFIC RELIEF, ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION, TORTS,<br />
LIMITATION AND EVIDENCE<br />
Section 5, a person, entitled to the possession <strong>of</strong> specific immovable property may recover<br />
the same in the manner provided by the Code <strong>of</strong> Civil Procedure, 1908<br />
Recovery <strong>of</strong> possession <strong>of</strong> dispossessed immovable property. Section 6 provides if any<br />
person is dispossessed without his consent, <strong>of</strong> immovable property otherwise than in<br />
due course <strong>of</strong> Law, he or any person claiming through him may by suit recover<br />
possession there<strong>of</strong>, notwithst<strong>and</strong>ing any other title that may be set up in such a suit. There<br />
are two restrictions; no suit under Section 6 shall be brought (i) after the expiry <strong>of</strong> 6<br />
months from the date <strong>of</strong> dispossession, or (ii) against the Government. Under Sub-section<br />
(3) no appeal or review is allowed <strong>of</strong> any order <strong>of</strong> decree passed under this Section. A<br />
person can file a suit to establish his title to such property <strong>and</strong> recover possession there<strong>of</strong>.<br />
A person is entitled to recover the possession <strong>of</strong> specific moveable property in the<br />
manner provided by the Code <strong>of</strong> Civil Procedure, 1908. (Section 7) A trustee is legal owner,<br />
Recovery <strong>of</strong> possession <strong>of</strong> specific moveable property by a person other than owner<br />
(a) When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee <strong>of</strong> the<br />
plaintiff, (b) when the compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate<br />
relief for the loss <strong>of</strong> the thing claimed, (c) when it would be extremely difficult to ascertain<br />
the actual damage caused by its loss, (d) when the possession <strong>of</strong> the thing claimed has<br />
been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff. The moveable property should not be goods<br />
<strong>of</strong> ordinary commercium<br />
Specific performance <strong>of</strong> contact<br />
Sec. 9 contracts which are not valid under contracts Act can not be specifically enforced’<br />
Sec. 10 specific performance <strong>of</strong> any contract may, in the discretion <strong>of</strong> the Court, be<br />
enforced (a) when there exists no st<strong>and</strong>ard for ascertaining the actual damage caused<br />
by the non-performance <strong>of</strong> the act agreed to be done, or (b) when the act agreed to be done<br />
is such that compensation in money for its non-performance would not afford adequate<br />
relief<br />
Specific performance <strong>of</strong> contracts connected with trusts enforceable. S.11.<br />
Specific performance <strong>of</strong> part <strong>of</strong> contract possible. Section 14 lays down the contracts which<br />
cannot be specifically enforced. They are (a) A contract for the non-performance <strong>of</strong> which<br />
compensation in money is an adequate relief; (b) A contract which runs into such minute <strong>and</strong><br />
numerous details that the Court cannot enforce specific performance <strong>of</strong> its material terms or<br />
which is dependant upon the personal qualification or volition <strong>of</strong> the parties or a contract<br />
from its nature is such that the Court cannot enforce specific performance; (c) A contract<br />
which is in its nature determinable; (d) A contract, the performance <strong>of</strong> which involves the<br />
performance <strong>of</strong> a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise.<br />
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Section 20 says that relief by way <strong>of</strong> specific performance is discretionary. It will enquire into<br />
the conduct <strong>of</strong> plaintiff. No relief will be granted if it would give unconscionable benefit to<br />
plaintiff or when it will give unconscionable burden on the defendant.<br />
PREVENTIVE RELIEFS<br />
An injunction is a specific order <strong>of</strong> the Court forbidding the commission <strong>of</strong> a wrong<br />
threatened or the continuance <strong>of</strong> a wrongful course <strong>of</strong> action already begun, or in some<br />
cases<br />
Temporary <strong>and</strong> perpetual injunctions. Temporary injunction is granted to maintain status<br />
quo ante.<br />
Temporary injunctions are such as are to continue until a specified time, or until the<br />
further order <strong>of</strong> the Court <strong>and</strong> they may be granted at any stage <strong>of</strong> a suit, <strong>and</strong> are regulated<br />
by the Code <strong>of</strong> Civil Procedure, 1908.<br />
A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing <strong>and</strong> upon the<br />
merits <strong>of</strong> the suit; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion <strong>of</strong> right, or<br />
from the commission <strong>of</strong> an act,which is against the interests <strong>of</strong> the plaintiff<br />
Specific performance is decreed to compel the performance <strong>of</strong> an active duty, while injunction<br />
is decreed to prevent the violation <strong>of</strong> a negative duty.<br />
A perpetual injunction cannot be granted (a) to restrain any person from prosecuting a<br />
judicial proceeding pending at the institution <strong>of</strong> the suit in which the injunction is sought,<br />
unless such restraint is necessary to prevent a multiplicity <strong>of</strong> proceedings; (b) to restrain any<br />
person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a Court not subordinate to that from<br />
which the injunction is sought; (c) to restrain any person from applying to any legislative<br />
body; (d) to restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a criminal<br />
matter; (e) to prevent the breach <strong>of</strong> a contract the performance <strong>of</strong> which would not be<br />
specifically enforced; (f) to prevent on the ground <strong>of</strong> nuisance, an act <strong>of</strong> which it is not<br />
reasonably clear that it will be nuisance; (g) to prevent a continuing breach in which the<br />
plaintiff has acquiesced; (h) when equally efficacious relief can certainly be obtained by any<br />
other usual mode <strong>of</strong> proceeding except in case <strong>of</strong> breach <strong>of</strong> trust; (i) when the conduct <strong>of</strong> the<br />
plaintiff or his agents has been such as to disentitle him to the assistance <strong>of</strong> the Court; (j)<br />
when the plaintiff has no interest in the matter.<br />
LAW RELATING TO ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION<br />
Arbitration Agreement is an agreement by parties to submit the arbitration certain<br />
disputes which have arisen or which may arise between them in respect <strong>of</strong> a defined legal<br />
relationship whether contractual or not. An arbitration agreement may be in the form <strong>of</strong> an<br />
arbitration clause or in the form <strong>of</strong> a separate agreement. It shall be in writing. In the form <strong>of</strong><br />
(a)a document signed by the parties, or<br />
(b) an exchange <strong>of</strong> letters, telex, telegrams or other means <strong>of</strong> telecommuni-cation, which<br />
provide a record <strong>of</strong> the agreement, or<br />
(c)an exchange <strong>of</strong> statements <strong>of</strong> claim <strong>and</strong> defence in which the existence <strong>of</strong> the<br />
agreement is alleged by one party <strong>and</strong> not denied by the other.<br />
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Parties can agree to any procedure for appointment <strong>of</strong> arbitrators<br />
(i) Arbitrator could be <strong>of</strong> any nationality. [Section 11(1)]<br />
(ii) In case <strong>of</strong> an arbitration with three arbitrators, each party shall appoint its own<br />
arbitrator, <strong>and</strong> the two appointed arbitrators shall appoint a third arbitrator, who<br />
shall be the presiding arbitrator [Section 11(3)].<br />
(iii) If, within 30 days, the parties fail to appoint their arbitrators, or the arbitrators fail<br />
to appoint the third arbitrator, the arbitrator shall be appointed by the Chief<br />
Justice or a person institution designated by him at the request <strong>of</strong> a party.<br />
[Section 11(4)]<br />
(iv) Similar procedure is also applicable for appointment <strong>of</strong> a sole arbitrator. If parties<br />
fail to agree on the appointment <strong>of</strong> a sole arbitrator within 30 days, the<br />
appointment shall be done by the Chief Justice or a person/institution designated<br />
by him.<br />
(b) Similar procedure also applies, when the procedure agreed by the parties is not<br />
acted upon in time. [Section 11(6)]<br />
(c) Decision on appointment <strong>of</strong> arbitrators by the Chief Justice or persons/ institution<br />
designated by him, is final [Section 11(7)].<br />
(d) Chief Justice or the persons/Institution designated by him would have due regard to<br />
qualifications <strong>of</strong> arbitrators agreed between the parties, <strong>and</strong> considerations likely to<br />
secure an independent <strong>and</strong> impartial arbitrator. [Section 11(8)]<br />
(e) In case <strong>of</strong> appointment <strong>of</strong> a sole or third arbitrator in an international <strong>commercial</strong><br />
arbitration, the Chief Justice <strong>of</strong> India or a person/Institution designed by him, may<br />
appoint a person <strong>of</strong> a nationality, other than that <strong>of</strong> the parties, where the parties are<br />
<strong>of</strong> different nationalities. [Section 11(9)]<br />
(f) The Chief Justice can make any Scheme, he considers appropriate for appointment<br />
<strong>of</strong> arbitrator<br />
The parties are free to determine the number <strong>of</strong> arbitrators, provided that such number<br />
shall not be an even number. If they fail to determine the number <strong>of</strong> arbitrators, the arbitral<br />
tribunal shall consist <strong>of</strong> a sole arbitrator.<br />
Challenge procedure<br />
The parties are free to agree on a procedure for challenging an arbitrator. if a<br />
challenge under any procedure agreed upon by the parties or under the procedure under<br />
Sub-section is not successful, the arbitral tribunal shall continue the arbitral proceedings<br />
<strong>and</strong> make an arbitral award. But at that stage, the challenging party has the right to make an<br />
application in the Court to set aside the award in accordance with Section 34 <strong>of</strong> the Act.<br />
Section 34, stipulates the following grounds<br />
(i) incapacity <strong>of</strong> a party;<br />
(ii) invalidity <strong>of</strong> the arbitration agreement;<br />
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(iii) party applying was not given proper notice <strong>of</strong> the apointement <strong>of</strong> the arbitrator or <strong>of</strong><br />
the arbitral proceedings or was otherwise unable to present his case;<br />
(iv) award not in accordance with the terms <strong>of</strong> submission to arbitration in regard to the<br />
dispute;<br />
(v) arbitral tribunal not properly constituted or the arbitral procedure was not in<br />
accordance with the agreement <strong>of</strong> the parties;<br />
(vi) subject matter <strong>of</strong> the dispute not capable <strong>of</strong> settlement by arbitration under the law<br />
for the time being in force;<br />
(vii) award being in conflict with ‘the public policy <strong>of</strong> India’<br />
Conciliation is an informal process in which the conciliator (the third party) tries to bring<br />
the disputants to agreement.<br />
The settlement agreement shall have the same status <strong>and</strong> effect as if it is an arbitral<br />
award on agreed terms on the substance <strong>of</strong> the dispute rendered by an arbitral tribunal<br />
under Section 30. (Section 74)<br />
The parties shall not initiate, during the conciliation proceedings, any arbitral or judicial<br />
proceedings in respect <strong>of</strong> a dispute that is the subject matter <strong>of</strong> the conciliation proceedings<br />
except that a party may initiate arbitral or judicial proceedings where, in his opinion, such<br />
proceedings are necessary for preserving his rihall not initiate, during the conciliation<br />
proceedings, any arbitral or judicial proceedings in respect <strong>of</strong> a dispute that is the subject<br />
matter <strong>of</strong> the conciliation proceedings except that a party may initiate arbitral or judicial<br />
proceedings where, in his opinion, such proceedings are necessary for preserving his rights.<br />
Conciliator to decide the costs.<br />
LAW RELATING TO torts<br />
Tort is a civil wrong not arising out <strong>of</strong> breach <strong>of</strong> trust or breach <strong>of</strong> contract.<br />
Tort is (i) a wrongful act or omission <strong>of</strong> the defendant;<br />
(ii) the wrongful act must result in causing legal damage to another; <strong>and</strong><br />
(iii) the wrongful act must be <strong>of</strong> such a nature as to give rise to a legal remedy.<br />
Damnum Sine Injuria<br />
Damnum means harm, loss or damage in respect <strong>of</strong> money, comfort, health, etc. Injuria<br />
means infringement <strong>of</strong> a right conferred by law on the plaintiff. The maxim means that in a<br />
given case, a man may have suffered damage <strong>and</strong> yet have no action in tort, because the<br />
damage is not to an interest protected by the law <strong>of</strong> torts.Thus when loss is caused by<br />
competition it is not arising out <strong>of</strong> wrongfulact, Hence no tort.<br />
Injuria Sine Damnum<br />
It means injury without damage, i.e., where there is no damage resulted yet it is an injury<br />
or wrong in tort, i.e. where there is infringement <strong>of</strong> a legal right not resulting in harm but<br />
plaintiff can still sue in tort.<br />
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Tresspass. Wrongful dishonor <strong>of</strong> a cheque<br />
(iii) Legal remedy The third condition <strong>of</strong> liability for a tort is legal remedy. This means that to<br />
constitute a tort, the wrongful act must come under the law. The main remedy for a tort is an<br />
action for unliquidated damages<br />
Mens Rea<br />
How far a guilty mind <strong>of</strong> persons is required for liability for tort? Motive is relevant only in<br />
few cases but not necessary when law fixes strict liability<br />
VICARIOUS LIABILITY<br />
Normally, the tortfeasor is liable for his tort. But in some cases a person may be held liable<br />
for the tort committed by another. A master is vicariously liable for the tort <strong>of</strong> his servant,<br />
principal for the tort <strong>of</strong> his agent <strong>and</strong> partners for the tort <strong>of</strong> a partner.<br />
(1) Judicial Remedies<br />
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REMEDIES IN TORTS<br />
Three types <strong>of</strong> judicial remedies are available to the plaintiff in an action for tort namely:<br />
(i) Damages, (ii) Injunction, <strong>and</strong> (iii) Specific Restitution <strong>of</strong> Property.<br />
Extra Judicial Remedies<br />
(a) Self Defence<br />
(b) Prevention <strong>of</strong> Trespass<br />
(c) Re-entry on L<strong>and</strong><br />
(d) Re-caption <strong>of</strong> Goods<br />
(e) Abatement <strong>of</strong> Nuisance<br />
(f) Distress Damage Feasant<br />
LAW RELATING TO LIMITATION<br />
The Law <strong>of</strong> limitation bars the remedy in a Court <strong>of</strong> law only when the period <strong>of</strong> limitation has<br />
expired, but it does not extinguish the right that it cannot be enforced by judicial process<br />
Section 3 <strong>of</strong> the Act provides that any suit, appeal or application if made beyond the<br />
prescribed period <strong>of</strong> limitation, it is the duty <strong>of</strong> the Court not to proceed with such suits<br />
irrespective <strong>of</strong> the fact whether the plea <strong>of</strong> limitation has been set up in defence or not.<br />
EXTENSION OF TIME IN CERTAIN CASES<br />
1.Wrong practice <strong>of</strong> High Court which misled the appellant or his counsel in not filing the<br />
appeal should be regarded as sufficient cause under Section 5;<br />
2. Mistake <strong>of</strong> counsel may be taken into consideration in condonation <strong>of</strong> delay. But such<br />
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mistake must be bona fide;<br />
3. Wrong advice given by advocate can give rise to sufficient cause in certain cases;<br />
4. Mistake <strong>of</strong> law in establishing or exercising the right given by law may be considered<br />
as sufficient cause. However, ignorance <strong>of</strong> law is not excuse, nor the negligence <strong>of</strong><br />
the party or the legal adviser constitutes a sufficient cause;<br />
5. Imprisonment <strong>of</strong> the party or serious illness <strong>of</strong> the party may be considered for<br />
condonation <strong>of</strong> delay;<br />
6. Time taken for obtaining certified copies <strong>of</strong> the decree <strong>of</strong> the judgment necessary to<br />
accompany the appeal or application was considered for condoning the delay.<br />
7. Non-availability <strong>of</strong> the file <strong>of</strong> the case to the State counsel or Panel lawyer is no<br />
ground for condonation <strong>of</strong> inordinate delay (Collector <strong>and</strong> Authorised Chief<br />
Settlement Commissioner v. Darshan Singh <strong>and</strong> others, AIR 1999 Raj. 84).<br />
8. Ailment <strong>of</strong> father during which period the defendant was looking after him has been<br />
held to be a sufficient <strong>and</strong> genuine cause (Mahendra Yadav v. Ratna Devi & others, AIR<br />
2006 (NOC) 339 Pat<br />
Continuous running <strong>of</strong> time.<br />
“Time when once it has commenced to run in any case will not cease to be so by reason<br />
<strong>of</strong> any subsequent event”. Thus, when any <strong>of</strong> the statutes <strong>of</strong> limitation is begun to run, no<br />
subsequent disability or inability will stop this running.<br />
COMPUTATION OF PERIOD OF LIMITATION<br />
(i) Exclusion <strong>of</strong> certain days or exclusion <strong>of</strong> time in legal proceedings<br />
The day which is to be excluded in computing period <strong>of</strong> limitation is the day from<br />
which the period <strong>of</strong> limitation is to be reckoned For counting the limitation period<br />
for appeal or review The day on which the judgment complained <strong>of</strong> was<br />
pronounced <strong>and</strong> the time requisite for obtaining a copy <strong>of</strong> the decree, sentence or<br />
order appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded<br />
Computation <strong>of</strong> period for an application made for leave to appeal from a decree<br />
or order. The time requisite for obtaining a copy <strong>of</strong> the judgement shall also be<br />
excluded Computation <strong>of</strong> Limitation period for an application to set aside an<br />
award: The time required for obtaining a copy <strong>of</strong> the award shall be excluded<br />
Exclusion <strong>of</strong> time bona fide taken in a court without jurisdiction.<br />
Exclusion <strong>of</strong> time during which leave to sue or appeal as a pauper is applied for.<br />
Effect <strong>of</strong> Acknowledgement on the Period <strong>of</strong> Limitation a fresh period <strong>of</strong> limitation shall be<br />
computed from the time when the acknowledgement was signed.<br />
Where payment on account <strong>of</strong> a debt or <strong>of</strong> interest on a legacy is made before the expiration<br />
<strong>of</strong> the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or legacy or by his agent duly<br />
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authorised in this behalf, a fresh period <strong>of</strong> limitation shall be computed from the time when<br />
the payment was made.<br />
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872<br />
“Evidence” means <strong>and</strong> includes:<br />
(1) all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses,<br />
in relation to matters <strong>of</strong> fact under inquiry; such statements are called oral evidence;<br />
(2) all documents (including electronic records) produced for the inspection <strong>of</strong> the Court;<br />
such documents are called documentary evidence.<br />
A fact is said to be logically relevant to another when it bears such casual relation with the<br />
other as to render probably the existence or non-existence <strong>of</strong> the latter. All facts logically<br />
relevant are not, however, legally relevant<br />
Facts in issue are decided when issues are framed in a civil case <strong>and</strong> in criminal<br />
proceedings when charge is framed.<br />
Two fundamental rules on which the law <strong>of</strong> evidence is based are: (a) no facts other than<br />
those having rational probative value should be admitted in evidence <strong>and</strong>, (b) all facts having<br />
rational probative value are admissible in evidence unless excluded by a positive rule <strong>of</strong><br />
paramount importance.<br />
The principle <strong>of</strong> law embodied in Sec.6 <strong>of</strong> the Evidence Act is known as the rule <strong>of</strong> ‘res<br />
gestae’ recognized in English law. The essence <strong>of</strong> the doctrine is that a fact which, though<br />
not in issue, is so connected with the fact in issue “as to form part <strong>of</strong> the same transaction”<br />
becomes relevant by itself. This rule is, roughly speaking an exception to the <strong>general</strong> rule<br />
that hearsay evidence is not admissible. The rationale in making certain statement on fact<br />
admissible under S.6 <strong>of</strong> the Evidence Act is on account <strong>of</strong> the spontaneity <strong>and</strong> immediately<br />
<strong>of</strong> such statement or fact in relation to the fact in issue. But, it is necessary that such fact or<br />
statement must be part <strong>of</strong> the same transaction. In other words, such statement must have<br />
been made contemporaneous with the acts which constitute the <strong>of</strong>fence or at least<br />
immediately thereafter. But if there was an interval, however slight it may be, which was<br />
sufficient enough for fabrication then the statement is not part <strong>of</strong> res gestae.<br />
Admissions<br />
An admission is defined in Section 17 as a statement, oral or documentary or contained in<br />
electronic form which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, <strong>and</strong><br />
which is made by any <strong>of</strong> the persons.<br />
Confessions<br />
Every confession must be an admission but every admission may not amount to a<br />
confession. Sections 27 to 30 deal with confessions which the Court will take into account. A<br />
confession is relevant as an admission unless it is made:<br />
(i) to a person in authority in consequence <strong>of</strong> some inducement, threat or promise held<br />
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out by him in reference to the charge against the accused;<br />
(ii) to a Police Officer; or<br />
(iii) to any one at a time when the accused is in the custody <strong>of</strong> a Police Officer <strong>and</strong> no<br />
Magistrate is present.<br />
Thus, a statement made by an accused person if it is an admission, is admissible in<br />
evidence. The confession is evidence only against its maker <strong>and</strong> against another person<br />
who is being jointly tried with him for an <strong>of</strong>fence.<br />
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FACTS OF WHICH EVIDENCE CANNOT BE GIVEN<br />
No one shall be permitted to give any evidence derived from unpublished <strong>of</strong>ficial records<br />
relating to any affairs <strong>of</strong> State, except with the permission <strong>of</strong> the <strong>of</strong>ficer at the head <strong>of</strong> the<br />
department concerned, who shall give or withhold such permission as he thinks fit. The<br />
pr<strong>of</strong>essional communications between a legal adviser <strong>and</strong> a client, which are protected from<br />
disclosure<br />
PRESUMPTIONS<br />
A presumption is a rule <strong>of</strong> law that courts or juries shall or may draw a particular inference<br />
from a particular fact or from particular evidence unless <strong>and</strong> untill the truth <strong>of</strong> such<br />
inference is disproved<br />
ESTOPPEL<br />
The <strong>general</strong> rule <strong>of</strong> estoppel is when one person has by his declaration, act or omission,<br />
intentionally caused or permitted another person to believe a thing to be true <strong>and</strong> to act upon<br />
such belief, neither he nor his representative shall be allowed, in any suit or proceeding<br />
between himself <strong>and</strong> such person or his representative to deny the truth <strong>of</strong> that thing.<br />
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STUDY IV<br />
LAW RELATING TO TRANSFER OF PROPERTY<br />
"Immoveable property" means l<strong>and</strong>, benefits to arise out <strong>of</strong> l<strong>and</strong>, <strong>and</strong> things attached to the<br />
earth, or permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth.It also<br />
(a) right to collect rents <strong>of</strong> immoveable property;<br />
(b) hereditary <strong>of</strong>fices;<br />
(c) right to collect lac from trees;<br />
(d) a right <strong>of</strong> ferry;<br />
(e) a right <strong>of</strong> fishery;<br />
(f) reversion in property leased;<br />
Section 5 <strong>of</strong> the Transfer <strong>of</strong> Property Act, the term “transfer <strong>of</strong> property” means an act by<br />
which a living person conveys property in present, or in future, to one or more other living<br />
persons A company is a juristic person.<br />
A transfer <strong>of</strong> property not in existence operates as a contract to be performed in future which<br />
may be specially enforced as soon as the property comes into existence,<br />
Section 7 .Every person who is competent to contract <strong>and</strong> entitled to transferable property,<br />
or authorised to dispose <strong>of</strong> property is competent to transfer such property<br />
Right to property includes right <strong>of</strong> its transfer.<br />
Execution consists in affixing his signature to the document to the effect that he is<br />
transferring the property. An illiterate person who cannot write may direct some literate<br />
person to sign it on his behalf <strong>and</strong> in his presence <strong>and</strong> the illiterate person may put his<br />
thumb impression. Attestation, in relation to a document, signifies the fact <strong>of</strong> authentication<br />
<strong>of</strong> the signature <strong>of</strong> the executant <strong>of</strong> that document by the attestator by putting down his own<br />
signature on the document in testimony <strong>of</strong> the fact <strong>of</strong> its execution<br />
Registration is an essential legal formality to effect a valid transfer.<br />
Section 10 <strong>of</strong> the Act says that when property is transferred, the transferee should not be<br />
restrained absolutely from alienating the property. In the case <strong>of</strong> a lease, the lessor can<br />
impose a condition that the lessee shall not sublet the property or sell his leasehold interest<br />
Partial restraint valid.<br />
The transferor should not impose conditions as to how <strong>and</strong> in what manner the transferee<br />
should enjoy the property. Section 11<br />
If a property is given to an unborn person, two conditions should be satisfied:<br />
(i) it should be preceded by a life estate in favour <strong>of</strong> a living person, <strong>and</strong><br />
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(ii) it should comprise the whole <strong>of</strong> the remaining interest <strong>of</strong> the transferor so that there<br />
can be no further interest in favour <strong>of</strong> others.<br />
Condition precedent means transfer will take place only when stipulated contingency takes<br />
place. Condition subsequent is a stipulation to be followed.<br />
Exceptions to the rule that no can transfer a better title than what he has<br />
Doctrine <strong>of</strong> election . If transferor transfers a property belonging to B <strong>and</strong> <strong>of</strong> the same deed<br />
transfers a gift to B. Then B has to elect to either accept the gift <strong>and</strong> ratify the transfer or<br />
reject both the gif <strong>and</strong> ratification <strong>of</strong> transfer.<br />
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TRANSFER BY OSTENSIBLE OWNER<br />
(i)The transferor is the ostensible owner;<br />
(ii) he is so by the consent, express or implied, <strong>of</strong> the real owner;<br />
(iii) the transfer is for consideration, <strong>and</strong><br />
(iv) the transferee has acted in good faith taking reasonable care to ascertain that the<br />
transferor had power to transfer.<br />
If any one <strong>of</strong> these elements is absent, the transferee is not entitled to the protection <strong>of</strong><br />
this section.<br />
FEEDING THE GRANT BY ESTOPPEL<br />
Where, a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorised to transfer<br />
certain immoveable property <strong>and</strong> pr<strong>of</strong>esses to transfer such property for consideration, such<br />
transfer shall, at the option <strong>of</strong> the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor<br />
may acquire in such property at any time during which the contract <strong>of</strong> transfer subsists.<br />
(Section 43)<br />
Fraudulent transfers<br />
Every transfer <strong>of</strong> immoveable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors<br />
<strong>of</strong> the transferor shall be voidable at the option <strong>of</strong> any creditor so defeated or delayed<br />
.<br />
Doctrine <strong>of</strong> part-performance<br />
1. The transferee should have taken the possession <strong>of</strong> the property in part performance<br />
<strong>of</strong> the contract. In case he is already in possession, he must have continued in<br />
possession in part performance <strong>of</strong> the contract <strong>and</strong> must have done something in<br />
furtherance <strong>of</strong> the contract.<br />
2. The transferee must have fulfilled or ready to fulfill his part <strong>of</strong> the obligation under the<br />
contract.<br />
3. Terms <strong>of</strong> contract should be clear<br />
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Properties which cannot be transferred.<br />
All properties are transferable except some (which in fact are not properties) Sec. 6<br />
1.Mere chance <strong>of</strong> heir apparent to succeed to the property. Spes Successionis’<br />
2. Mere Right <strong>of</strong> re-entry on the breach <strong>of</strong> conditions <strong>of</strong> a lease.<br />
3. Mere right <strong>of</strong> easement.<br />
4. An interest restricted in enjoyment to the owner personally<br />
5. Right to future maintenance<br />
6. Mere right to sue <strong>and</strong> actionable claim<br />
RULE AGAINST PERPETUITY<br />
Section 14 <strong>of</strong> the Act provides that no transfer <strong>of</strong> property can operate to create an interest<br />
which is to take effect after the life time <strong>of</strong> one or more persons living at the date <strong>of</strong> such<br />
transfer, <strong>and</strong> the minority <strong>of</strong> some person who shall be in existence at the expiration fo that<br />
period, <strong>and</strong> to whom, if he attains full age, the interest created is to belong<br />
Lis pendens<br />
Section 52 <strong>of</strong> the T.P. Act incorporates the doctrine <strong>of</strong> Lis pendens. It states that during the<br />
pendency <strong>of</strong> a suit in a Court <strong>of</strong> Law, property which is subject to a litigation cannot be<br />
transferred<br />
Sale is a transfer <strong>of</strong> ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part paid <strong>and</strong><br />
part-promised.<br />
Exchange When two persons mutually transfer the ownership <strong>of</strong> one thing for the ownership<br />
<strong>of</strong> another<br />
“Gift" is the transfer <strong>of</strong> certain existing moveable or immoveable property made voluntarily<br />
<strong>and</strong> without consideration the donor, to the donee <strong>and</strong> accepted by or on behalf <strong>of</strong><br />
the donee.<br />
Section 105, a "lease" <strong>of</strong> immoveable property is a transfer <strong>of</strong> a right to enjoy property<br />
Actionable Claims: Actionable claims are claims, to unsecured debts,<br />
"Mortgage" is the transfer <strong>of</strong> an interest in specific immoveable property for the purpose <strong>of</strong><br />
securing the payment <strong>of</strong> money advanced or to be advanced by way <strong>of</strong> loan, an existing or<br />
future debt or the performance <strong>of</strong> an engagement which may give rise to pecuniary liability<br />
Kinds <strong>of</strong> mortgages:<br />
(a) Simple mortgage.<br />
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(b) Mortgage by conditional sale.<br />
(c) Usufractuary mortgage.<br />
(d) English mortgage.<br />
(e) Mortgage by deposit <strong>of</strong> title-deeds or equitable mortgage.<br />
(f) Anomalous mortgage<br />
"Charge" under Section 100 : “Where immoveable property <strong>of</strong> one person is by the act <strong>of</strong><br />
parties or operation <strong>of</strong> law made security for the payment <strong>of</strong> money to another, <strong>and</strong> the<br />
transaction does not amount to a mortgage, the latter person has a charge on the property.<br />
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Rights <strong>of</strong> mortgagor<br />
(a) Right <strong>of</strong> redemption Right against clog on equity <strong>of</strong> redemption<br />
(b) Right <strong>of</strong> partial redemption<br />
Rights <strong>of</strong> mortgagee <strong>and</strong> his remedies<br />
Remedies against the property: The remedies <strong>of</strong> the mortgagee against the property<br />
are:<br />
(i) Right to bring property to sale.<br />
(ii)Right to foreclose.<br />
(iii) Right to the possession <strong>of</strong> the property<br />
STUDY V<br />
LAW RELATING TO STAMPS<br />
Section 3 charges certain instruments to be liable to stamp duty.<br />
The provisions <strong>of</strong> Indian Stamp Act are applicable to bill <strong>of</strong> exchange, cheques,<br />
promissory notes, bill <strong>of</strong> lading, letters <strong>of</strong> credit, policies <strong>of</strong> insurance, transfer <strong>of</strong> shares,<br />
debentures, proxies <strong>and</strong> receipt<br />
No duty shall be chargeable in respect <strong>of</strong>:<br />
1. any instrument executed by or on behalf <strong>of</strong> or in favour <strong>of</strong> the Government, in cases<br />
where, but for this the Government would be liable to pay the duty chargeable in<br />
respect <strong>of</strong> such instrument.<br />
2. any instrument for the sale, transfer or disposition, either absolutely or by way <strong>of</strong><br />
mortgage or otherwise, <strong>of</strong> any ship or vessel or any part, interest, share <strong>of</strong> property <strong>of</strong><br />
or in any ship or vessel registered under the Merchant Shipping Act, 1894 or under<br />
Act XIX <strong>of</strong> 1838 or the Indian Registration <strong>of</strong> Ships Act, 1841 as amended by<br />
subsequent Acts. Or re enactment there<strong>of</strong>.<br />
3.Any instrument executed by, or, on behalf <strong>of</strong>, or in favour <strong>of</strong>, the Developer or Unit or<br />
in connection with the carrying out <strong>of</strong> purposes <strong>of</strong> the special Economic Zone.<br />
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There may be cases where an instrument may come under several descriptions in<br />
Schedule-I to the Act. In such a circumstance, Section 6 <strong>of</strong> the Act provides that the<br />
instrument shall, where the duties chargeable thereunder are different, be chargeable only<br />
with the highest <strong>of</strong> such duties. Section 6 is subject to the provisions <strong>of</strong> Section 5. However,<br />
nothing in the Act shall render chargeable, with duty exceeding one rupee, a counter part or<br />
duplicate, <strong>of</strong> any instrument chargeable with duty, in respect <strong>of</strong> which the proper duty has<br />
been paid.<br />
Securities Dealt in Depository not liable to Stamp Duty<br />
Corporatisation <strong>and</strong> demutualisation schemes <strong>and</strong> related instruments not liable to duty<br />
VALUATION FOR DUTY UNDER THE ACT<br />
s. 20 where an instrument is chargeable with ad valorem duty in respect <strong>of</strong> any money<br />
expressed in any currency other than that <strong>of</strong> India, such duty shall be calculated on the value<br />
<strong>of</strong> such money in the currency <strong>of</strong> India, according to the current rate <strong>of</strong> exchange on the date<br />
<strong>of</strong> the instrument<br />
S 21 In the case <strong>of</strong> an instrument chargeable with ad valorem duty in respect <strong>of</strong> any stock or<br />
any marketable or other security, such duty shall be calculated on the value <strong>of</strong> such stock or<br />
security according to the average price or the value there<strong>of</strong> on the date <strong>of</strong> the instrument.<br />
S. 22 If such price or value is mentioned in the instrument for the purpose <strong>of</strong> calculating duty,<br />
it shall be presumed (untill the contrary is proved) to be correct.<br />
S. 23where interest is expressly made payable by the terms <strong>of</strong> the instrument, such<br />
instrument shall not be chargeable with a duty higher than that with which it would have<br />
been chargeable, had no mention <strong>of</strong> interest been made therein.<br />
S,24 When the mortgaged property is sold to the mortgagee along with other properties,<br />
the stamp duty already paid is to be deducted from the duty payable on the deed <strong>of</strong><br />
sale. In order to entitle the mortgagee to a deduction <strong>of</strong> the duties payable the entire<br />
property mortgaged should be transferred<br />
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There are two types <strong>of</strong> stamping, namely:<br />
(i) Adhesive stamping, <strong>and</strong><br />
(ii) Impressed stamping.<br />
The following instruments may be stamped with adhesive stamps, namely –<br />
(a) instruments chargeable with a duty not exceeding 10 naya paisa except parts <strong>of</strong> bills<br />
<strong>of</strong> exchange payable otherwise than on dem<strong>and</strong> <strong>and</strong> drawn in sets;<br />
(b) bills <strong>of</strong> exchange <strong>and</strong> promissory notes drawn or made out <strong>of</strong> India;<br />
(c) entry as an advocate, vakil or attorney on the roll <strong>of</strong> a High Court;<br />
(d) notarial acts; <strong>and</strong><br />
(e) transfers by endorsement <strong>of</strong> shares in any incorporated company or other body<br />
corporate.<br />
Adhesive stamps must be pf appropriate description <strong>and</strong> value <strong>and</strong> must be cancelled to prevent<br />
reuse.<br />
Instruments executed inside India: Section 17 provides that all instruments<br />
chargeable with duty <strong>and</strong> executed by any person in India shall be stamped<br />
before or at the time <strong>of</strong> execution.<br />
Section 18, every instrument chargeable with duty executed only out <strong>of</strong> India <strong>and</strong> (not<br />
being a bill <strong>of</strong> exchange or promissory note) may be stamped within three months<br />
after it has been first received in India. Section 18(2) Where an instrument is brought<br />
to the Collector after the expiry <strong>of</strong> three months, the Collector may, instead <strong>of</strong><br />
declining to stamp it, validate it under Sections 41 <strong>and</strong> 42 if he is satisfied that the<br />
omission to stamp in time was due to a reasonable cause.<br />
Any party who is in doubt as to the proper stamp to be affixed on an instrument but is<br />
nevertheless anxious to stamp the instrument. When the document or any draft <strong>of</strong> the<br />
document is produced to the Collector he shall determine the proper stamp duty on payment<br />
<strong>of</strong> a nominal fee. Collector has no power to impound such a document. His duty is only to<br />
adjudicate.<br />
Instruments not Duly Stamped – Treatment <strong>and</strong> Consequences<br />
Section 33 contains a m<strong>and</strong>ate on certain <strong>of</strong>ficials to impound an instrument which is not<br />
duly stamped. Section 33(1) provides that every person having by law or consent <strong>of</strong> parties,<br />
authority to receive evidence <strong>and</strong> every person in charge <strong>of</strong> a public <strong>of</strong>fice, except an <strong>of</strong>ficer<br />
<strong>of</strong> police before whom any instrument, chargeable in his opinion, with duty is produced or comes in<br />
the performance <strong>of</strong> his functions, shall, if it appears to him that the instrument is not duly stamped,<br />
impound the same.<br />
Instruments not Duly Stamped Inadmissible in Evidence<br />
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Prosecutions for <strong>of</strong>fences against the Stamp Law. This section provides that a levy <strong>of</strong> a<br />
penalty or payment there<strong>of</strong> in respect <strong>of</strong> an unstamped or insufficiently stamped document.<br />
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STUDY VI<br />
LAW RELATING TO REGISTRATION OF DOCUMENTS<br />
DOCUMENTS WHOSE REGISTRATION IS COMPULSORY<br />
(a) Instruments <strong>of</strong> gift <strong>of</strong> immovable property<br />
(b) Other non-testamentary instruments (other than instruments <strong>of</strong> gift <strong>of</strong> immovable<br />
property) which purport or operate to create, declare, assign, limit or extinguish,<br />
whether in present or in future, any right, title <strong>of</strong> interest whether vested or<br />
contingent, <strong>of</strong> the value <strong>of</strong> one hundred rupees <strong>and</strong> upwards, to or in immovable<br />
property situated in a district in which this Act is in force.<br />
(c) Non‐testamentary instruments which acknowledge the receipt or payment <strong>of</strong> any<br />
consideration on account <strong>of</strong> the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation, or<br />
extinction <strong>of</strong> any such right, title or interest<br />
DOCUMENTS OF WHICH REGISTRATION IS OPTIONAL<br />
(a) instruments (other than instruments <strong>of</strong> gift <strong>and</strong> wills) which purport or operate to<br />
create, declare, assign, limit or extinguish, whether in present or in future, any right,<br />
title or interest whether vested or contingent, <strong>of</strong> value less than one hundred rupees,<br />
to or in immovable property;<br />
(b) instruments acknowledging the receipt or payment <strong>of</strong> any consideration on account<br />
<strong>of</strong> the creation, declaration, assignment; limitation or extinction <strong>of</strong> any such right, title<br />
or interest;<br />
(c) leases <strong>of</strong> immovable property for any term not exceeding one year <strong>and</strong> leases<br />
exempted under Section 17;<br />
(d) instruments transferring or assigning any decree or order <strong>of</strong> a court or any award<br />
when such decree or order or award purports or operates to create, declare, assign,<br />
limit or extinguish, whether in present or in future, any right, title or interest, whether<br />
vested or contingent <strong>of</strong> a value less than one hundred rupees, to or in immovable<br />
property;<br />
(e) instruments (other than wills) which purport or operate to create declare, assign, limit<br />
or extinguish any right, title or interest to or in movable property;<br />
(f) wills; <strong>and</strong><br />
(g) other documents not required by Section 17 to be registered. (Section 18)<br />
TIME LIMIT FOR PRESENTATION<br />
A document other than a will must be presented within four months <strong>of</strong> its execution. In cases <strong>of</strong><br />
urgent necessity, etc. the period is eight months, but higher fee has to be paid<br />
Documents relating to immovable property should be registered in the <strong>of</strong>fice <strong>of</strong><br />
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Sub-Registrar <strong>of</strong> sub-district within which the whole or some portion <strong>of</strong> property is<br />
situated. Other documents can be registered in the <strong>of</strong>fice <strong>of</strong> Sub-Registrar.<br />
Where all persons executing the document desire it to be registered. Registrar<br />
can accept a document which is registrable with Sub-Registrar who is<br />
subordinate to him. Document should be presented for registration at the <strong>of</strong>fice <strong>of</strong><br />
Registrar/Sub-Registrar. However, in special case, the <strong>of</strong>ficer may attend<br />
residence <strong>of</strong> any person to accept a document or will.<br />
All persons executing the document or their representatives, assign or agents<br />
holding power <strong>of</strong> attorney must appear before registering <strong>of</strong>ficer. They have to<br />
admit execution <strong>and</strong> sign the document in presence <strong>of</strong> Registrar, as required<br />
under Section 58(1)(a). Appearance may be simultaneous or at different times. If<br />
some <strong>of</strong> the persons are unable to appear within four months, further time upto<br />
additional four months can be given on payment <strong>of</strong> fine upto 10 times the proper<br />
registration fee.<br />
If the Registering Officer is satisfied about identity <strong>of</strong> persons <strong>and</strong> if they admit<br />
about execution <strong>of</strong> documents, <strong>and</strong> after registration fees are paid, the registering<br />
<strong>of</strong>ficer will register the document. He will make necessary entries in the Register<br />
maintained by him.<br />
After all formalities are complete, the Registering Officer will endorse the<br />
document with the word ‘Registered’, <strong>and</strong> sign the same. The endorsement will<br />
be copied in Register. After registration, the document will be returned to the<br />
person who presented the document.<br />
A document takes effect from its date <strong>of</strong> execution <strong>and</strong> not from date <strong>of</strong> registration.<br />
However, if the document states that it will be effective from a particular date, it will be<br />
effective from that date.<br />
Section 49 <strong>of</strong> the Act provides that no document required by Section 17 or by any provision <strong>of</strong> the<br />
Transfer <strong>of</strong> Property Act, 1882 to be registered shall:<br />
(a) affect any immovable property comprised therein; or<br />
(b) confer any power to adopt; or<br />
(c) be received as evidence <strong>of</strong> any transaction affecting such property or conferring such power<br />
unless it has been registered.<br />
Section 49 is m<strong>and</strong>atory, <strong>and</strong> a document which is required to be registered cannot be received in<br />
evidence as affecting immovable property.<br />
An unregistered document which comes within Section 17 cannot be used in any legal proceeding<br />
to bring out indirectly the effect which it would have if registered.<br />
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STUDY VII<br />
LAW RELATING TO INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY<br />
The Information Technology Act, 2000<br />
( a) It provides legal recognition for transactions carried out by means <strong>of</strong> electronic data<br />
interchange <strong>and</strong> other means <strong>of</strong> electronic communication, usually referred to, as<br />
“electronic Commerce”.<br />
(b) It facilitates the electronic filing <strong>of</strong> documents with the Government agencies, (<strong>and</strong> also with<br />
the publication <strong>of</strong> rules etc in the electronic form, see Section 8).<br />
(c) It amends the, Indian Penal Code, the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Bankers’ Book Evidence<br />
Act, 18 91, <strong>and</strong> the Reserve Bank <strong>of</strong> India Act, 1934, so as to bring in electronic documentation<br />
within the purview <strong>of</strong> the respective enactments<br />
DIGITAL SIGNATURE<br />
Digital signature (i.e. authentication <strong>of</strong> an electronic record by a subscriber, by electronic means) is<br />
recognised as a valid method <strong>of</strong> authentication.<br />
The authentication is to be effected by the use <strong>of</strong> “asymmetric crypto system <strong>and</strong> hash function”,<br />
which envelop <strong>and</strong> transform electronic record into another electronic record. [Sections 3(1), 3(2)]<br />
Verification <strong>of</strong> the electronic record is done by the use <strong>of</strong> a public key <strong>of</strong> the subscriber. [Section<br />
3(3)] The private key <strong>and</strong> the public key are unique to the subscriber <strong>and</strong> constitute a functioning<br />
“key pair”.<br />
A digital signature is deemed to be a secure digital signature, if, by the application <strong>of</strong> an agreed<br />
security procedure, it can be verified that a digital signature, at the time it was verified, -<br />
(a) was unique to the subscriber affixing it;<br />
(b) was capable <strong>of</strong> identifying such subscriber;<br />
(c) was created in a manner or using a means under the exclusive control <strong>of</strong> the subscriber <strong>and</strong><br />
is linked to the electronic record to which it relates, in such a manner that if the electronic<br />
record was altered, the digital signature would be invalidated. (Section 15)<br />
A system <strong>of</strong> digital signature <strong>of</strong> an electronic communication pre-supposes that the sender must<br />
create a “public -private key” pair. The private key, which is kept confidential, is used by the signer to<br />
create the digital signature. The public key (which is more widely known), is used by the relying party,<br />
to verify the digital signature.<br />
To associate a key pair with a certifying prospective signer, the Certifying Authority issues a<br />
certificate to the subscriber. [Section 35]<br />
The Act contains detailed provisions as to “Certifying Authorities” (Sections 17-34). A Certifying<br />
Authority is expected to reliably identify persons applying for “signature key certificates”, reliably verify<br />
their legal capacity <strong>and</strong> confirm the attribution <strong>of</strong> a public signature key to an identified physical<br />
person by means <strong>of</strong> a signature key certificate. To regulate the Certifying Authorities, there is a<br />
Controller <strong>of</strong> Certifying Authorities. (Section 17)<br />
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Foreign Certifying Authorities may be recognised by the Controller. (Section 19) The Controller<br />
acts as the repository <strong>of</strong> all Digital Signature Certificates, issued under the Act. [Section 20(1)]<br />
Section 43 imposes only a liability “to pay damages by way <strong>of</strong> compensation not exceeding one<br />
crore rupees”, to the person harmed by the tort. The acts so dealt with, include the following –<br />
(a) accessing or securing access to the computer network;<br />
(b) down-loading any data or information from the computer network;<br />
(c) introducing (or causing to be introduced) any computer contaminant or computer virus, into<br />
the computer/network;<br />
(d) damaging (or causing to be damaged) the computer/ network, data, computer data-base or<br />
any other programmes residing in it;<br />
(e) disrupting (or causing the disruption <strong>of</strong>) the computer/network;<br />
(f) denying access (or causing the denial <strong>of</strong> access) to any person authorised to access the<br />
computer/network, by any means;<br />
(g) providing assistance to any person to facilitate access to the computer network in<br />
contravention <strong>of</strong> the provisions <strong>of</strong> the Act, rules etc.<br />
(h) charging the service availed <strong>of</strong>, by a person, to the account <strong>of</strong> another person, by tampering<br />
with or manipulating any computer network (Section 43).<br />
A person failing to provide information or failing to file a return etc. (as required by the Act), has to<br />
pay a penalty not exceeding ten thous<strong>and</strong> rupees for every day during which the failure continues.<br />
(Section 44)<br />
Contravention <strong>of</strong> a rule or regulation attracts liability to pay compensation upto 25,000 rupees, to<br />
the person affected by such contravention or to pay penalty upto that amount. (Section 45)<br />
Adjudicating <strong>of</strong>ficer<br />
An adjudication <strong>of</strong>ficer is to be appointed by the Central Government for adjudging (under this<br />
Chapter) whether any person has committed a contravention <strong>of</strong> the Act or <strong>of</strong> any rule, regulation,<br />
direction or order issued under the Act. He may impose penalty or award compensation in accordance<br />
with the provisions <strong>of</strong> the relevant section (Section 46).<br />
CYBER REGULATIONS APPELLATE TRIBUNAL<br />
Chapter 10 <strong>of</strong> the Act provides for the establishment <strong>of</strong> one or more Cyber Regulations Appellate<br />
Tribunal <strong>and</strong> lays down various provisions regarding its jurisdiction, composition, powers <strong>and</strong><br />
procedure. (Sections 48-62)<br />
In the same Chapter, there are provisions regarding the compounding <strong>of</strong> <strong>of</strong>fences <strong>and</strong> recovery <strong>of</strong><br />
penalties. (Sections 63 <strong>and</strong> 64).<br />
Any person aggrieved by an order <strong>of</strong> the Controller <strong>of</strong> Certifying Authorities or <strong>of</strong> the adjudicator<br />
can appeal to the Cyber Appellate Tribunal, within 45 days. (Section 57)<br />
OFFENCES<br />
(a)Tampering with computer source documents;<br />
(b) Hacking with computer system<br />
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(i) Whoever, with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage<br />
to the public or any person, destroys or deletes or alters any information residing in a<br />
computer resource or diminishes its value or utility or affects it injuriously by any means,<br />
commits hacking.<br />
(ii) Whoever commits hacking, shall be punished with imprisonment upto three years or with fine<br />
which may extend upto two lakh rupees or with both. (Section 66)<br />
(c) Publishing <strong>of</strong> obscene information in electronic form;<br />
(d) Securing access to any computer, computer system or computer network declared by the<br />
appropriate Government to be a “protected system”;<br />
(e) Misrepresentation about a material fact to, or suppression <strong>of</strong> a material fact from, the<br />
Controller or the Certifying Authority;<br />
(f) Breach <strong>of</strong> confidentiality <strong>and</strong> privacy, by a person who has, in the exercise <strong>of</strong> a<br />
power conferred by the Act, secured access to electronic record, book, register etc.;<br />
(g) Publishing a digital signature certificate, which is false in certain particulars;<br />
(h) Knowing, creating, publishing etc. a Digital Signature Certificate, for any fraudulent<br />
or unlawful purpose.<br />
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STUDY VIII<br />
THE CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908 (C.P.C.)<br />
Judgement, Decree <strong>and</strong> Order<br />
A "judgement" is the decision <strong>of</strong> a Court <strong>of</strong> justice upon the respective rights <strong>and</strong> claims <strong>of</strong> the<br />
parties to an action in a suit submitted to it for determination .<br />
Decree" is defined in Section 2(2) <strong>of</strong> the Code as (i) the formal expression <strong>of</strong> an adjudication which,<br />
so far as regards the Court expressing it; (ii) conclusively; (iii) determines the rights <strong>of</strong> the parties; (iv)<br />
with regard to all or any <strong>of</strong> the matters in controversy; (v) in the suit <strong>and</strong> may be either preliminary<br />
(i.e. when further proceedings have to be taken before disposal <strong>of</strong> the suit) or final.<br />
"Order" as set out in Section 2(14) <strong>of</strong> the Code means the formal expression <strong>of</strong> any decision <strong>of</strong> a Civil<br />
Court which is not a decree.<br />
JURISDICTION OF COURTS AND VENUE OF SUITS<br />
(i) jurisdiction over the subject matter<br />
(ii) Place <strong>of</strong> suing or territorial jurisdiction<br />
(iii) Jurisdiction over persons<br />
(iv) Pecuniary jurisdiction depending on pecuniary value <strong>of</strong> the suit<br />
(v) Jurisdiction may be further classified into following categories depending upon their powers:<br />
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(i) Original Jurisdiction — A Court tries <strong>and</strong> decides suits filed before it.<br />
(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction — A Court hears appeals against decisions or decrees passed<br />
by sub-ordinate Courts.<br />
Criminal <strong>and</strong> appellate Jurisdiction — The Supreme Court, the High Courts <strong>and</strong> the<br />
District Courts have both original <strong>and</strong> appellate jurisdiction in various matters.<br />
Civil Courts have jurisdiction to entertain a suit <strong>of</strong> civil nature unless barred by law.<br />
5. The same question is directly <strong>and</strong> substantially in issue in the latter suit RES<br />
JUDICATA<br />
1.The matter must be directly <strong>and</strong> substantially in issue in two suits;<br />
2. The prior suit should be between the same parties or persons claiming under them;<br />
3. The parties should have litigated under the same title;<br />
4. The court which determined the earlier suit must be competent to try the latter suit;<br />
Temporary injunction<br />
IMPORTANT STAGE IN PROCEEDINGS OF A SUIT<br />
1. INSTITUTION OF SUIT<br />
The main essentials <strong>of</strong> the suit are—<br />
(a) the opposing parties,<br />
(b) the cause <strong>of</strong> action,<br />
(c) the subject matter <strong>of</strong> the suit, <strong>and</strong><br />
(d) the relief(s) claimed.<br />
2. . DELIVERY OF SUMMONS BY COURT<br />
3. Discovery <strong>and</strong> interrogatories <strong>and</strong> production <strong>of</strong> documents<br />
4.Admission by parties — "Admission" means that one party accepts the case <strong>of</strong> the other party in<br />
whole or in part to be true. Admission may be either in pleadings or by answers to interrogatories, by<br />
agreement <strong>of</strong> the parties or admission by notice.<br />
5. Issues — Issues arise when a material proposition <strong>of</strong> fact or law is affirmed by one party <strong>and</strong><br />
denied by the other. Issues may be either <strong>of</strong> fact or <strong>of</strong> law<br />
6. Hearing <strong>and</strong> cross examination<br />
7, Judgement.<br />
8, Decree<br />
9. Execution<br />
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10. Appeals<br />
REFERENCE, REVIEW AND REVISION<br />
Reference to High Court<br />
Review<br />
SUMMARY PROCEDURE<br />
Such suit may be instituted by presenting a plaint containing the following essentials:<br />
(1) a specific averment to the effect that the suit is filed under this order;<br />
(2) that no relief which does not fall within the ambit <strong>of</strong> this rule has been claimed;<br />
(3) the inscription immediately below the number <strong>of</strong> the suit in the title <strong>of</strong> the suit that the suit is<br />
being established under Order 37 <strong>of</strong> the CPC.<br />
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Offence<br />
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STUDY IX THE CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, 1973<br />
Section 2(n) <strong>of</strong> the Cr.P.C. defines the word "<strong>of</strong>fence" to mean any act or ommission made punishable<br />
by any law for the time being in force <strong>and</strong> includes any act in respect <strong>of</strong> which a complaint may be<br />
made under Section 20 <strong>of</strong> the Cattle-trespass Act, 1871<br />
Mens rea<br />
unless an act is done with a guilty intention, it will not be criminally punishable<br />
Bailable Offence <strong>and</strong> Non-bailable Offence<br />
Cognizable Offence <strong>and</strong> Non-cognizable Offence<br />
Stages in a criminal suit<br />
Complaint<br />
Bail<br />
Inquiry<br />
Investigation<br />
Judicial Proceeding<br />
Power <strong>of</strong> the Court to pass sentences:<br />
(a) Sentences which High Courts <strong>and</strong> Sessions Judges may pass<br />
According to Section 28, a High Court may pass any sentence authorised by law. A Sessions Judge<br />
or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by law, but any sentence <strong>of</strong> death<br />
passed by any such judge shall be subject to confirmation by the High Court<br />
(b) Sentences which Magistrates may pass<br />
(c) Sentence <strong>of</strong> imprisonment in default <strong>of</strong> fine<br />
Section 41 enumerates different categories <strong>of</strong> cases in which a police <strong>of</strong>ficer may arrest a person<br />
without an order from a Magistrate <strong>and</strong> without a warrant<br />
Arrest on refusal to give name <strong>and</strong> residence<br />
A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person who in his presence commits a nonbailable<br />
<strong>and</strong> cognizable <strong>of</strong>fence or who is a proclaimed <strong>of</strong>fender (Section 43).<br />
Arrest by Magistrate<br />
Under Section 44 clause (1), the Magistrate has been given power to arrest a person who has<br />
committed an <strong>of</strong>fence in his presence <strong>and</strong> also commit him to custody. Under in clause 2, the<br />
Magistrate has power to arrest a person for which he is competent <strong>and</strong> has also been authorised to<br />
issue a warrant<br />
SUMMONS<br />
A summon is issued either for appearance or for producing a document or thing which may be issued<br />
to an accused person or witness. Every summons issued by the Court shall be in writing, in duplicate,<br />
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signed by the Presiding Officer <strong>of</strong> such Court or by such <strong>of</strong>ficer as is authorised by the High Court <strong>and</strong><br />
shall bear the seal <strong>of</strong> the Court (Section 61)<br />
WARRANT OF ARREST Every warrant <strong>of</strong> arrest issued by a Court under this Code shall be in<br />
writing, signed by the presiding <strong>of</strong>ficer <strong>of</strong> such Court, <strong>and</strong> shall bear the seal <strong>of</strong> the Court. Such<br />
warrant shall remain in force until it is cancelled by the Court which issued it, or until it is executed.<br />
(Section 70)<br />
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STUDY X<br />
LAW RELATING TO RIGHT TO INFORMATION<br />
Every public authority under the Act has been entrusted with a duty to maintain records <strong>and</strong><br />
publish manuals, rules, regulations, instructions, etc. in its possession as prescribed under the Act.<br />
[Section 4(1)(a)]<br />
As per Section 4(1)(b), every public authority has to publish within one hundred <strong>and</strong> twenty days<br />
<strong>of</strong> the enactment <strong>of</strong> this Act:<br />
DESIGNATION OF PUBLIC INFORMATION OFFICERS (PIO)<br />
. REQUEST FOR OBTAINING INFORMATION<br />
The Act specifies the manner in which requests may be made by a citizen to the authority for<br />
obtaining the information. It also provides for transferring the request to the other concerned public<br />
authority who may hold the information.<br />
—Information to be provided within 30 days.<br />
—48 hours where life or liberty is involved.<br />
—35 days where request is given to Asst. PIO.<br />
—Time taken for calculation <strong>and</strong> intimation <strong>of</strong> fees excluded from the time frame.<br />
—No action on application for 30 days is a deemed refusal.<br />
. EXEMPTION FROM DISCLOSURE. EXEMPTION FROM DISCLOSURE<br />
Certain categories <strong>of</strong> information have been exempted from disclosure under the Act. These are:<br />
— Where disclosure prejudicially affects the sovereignty <strong>and</strong> integrity <strong>of</strong> India, the security,<br />
strategic, scientific or economic interests <strong>of</strong> the State, relation with foreign State or lead to<br />
incitement <strong>of</strong> an <strong>of</strong>fence;<br />
— Information which has been expressly forbidden by any court or tribunal or the disclosure <strong>of</strong><br />
which may constitute contempt <strong>of</strong> court;<br />
— Where disclosure would cause a breach <strong>of</strong> privilege <strong>of</strong> Parliament or the State Legislature;<br />
— Information including <strong>commercial</strong> confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, where<br />
disclosure would harm competitive position <strong>of</strong> a third party, or available to a person in his<br />
fiduciary relationship, unless larger public interest so warrants;<br />
— Information received in confidence from a foreign government;<br />
— Information the disclosure <strong>of</strong> which endangers life or physical safety <strong>of</strong> any person or<br />
identifies confidential source <strong>of</strong> information or assistance;<br />
— Information that would impede the process <strong>of</strong> investigation or apprehension or prosecution <strong>of</strong><br />
<strong>of</strong>fenders;<br />
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— Cabinet papers including records <strong>of</strong> deliberations <strong>of</strong> the Council <strong>of</strong> Ministers, Secretaries <strong>and</strong><br />
other <strong>of</strong>ficers:<br />
Provided that the decisions <strong>of</strong> Council <strong>of</strong> Ministers, the reasons there<strong>of</strong>, <strong>and</strong> the material on<br />
the basis <strong>of</strong> which the decisions were taken shall be made public after the decision has been<br />
taken, <strong>and</strong> the matter is complete, or over:<br />
Provided further that those matters which come under the exemptions specified in this section<br />
shall not be disclosed;<br />
Personal information which would cause invasion <strong>of</strong> the privacy unless larger public interest justifies<br />
it. (Section 8)<br />
REJECTION OF REQUEST<br />
The Public Information Officer has been empowered to reject a request for information where an<br />
infringement <strong>of</strong> a copyright subsisting in a person would be involved. (Section 9)<br />
Under Section 10 <strong>of</strong> the RTI Act, only that part <strong>of</strong> the record which does not contain any<br />
information which is exempt from disclosure <strong>and</strong> which can reasonably be severed from any part that<br />
contains exempt information, may be provided<br />
The Act excludes Central Intelligence <strong>and</strong> Security agencies specified in the Second Schedule<br />
like IB, R&AW, Directorate <strong>of</strong> Revenue Intelligence, Central Economic Intelligence Bureau,<br />
Directorate <strong>of</strong> Enforcement, Narcotics Control Bureau, Aviation Research Centre, Special Frontier<br />
Force, BSF, CRPF, ITBP, CISF, NSG, Assam Rifles<br />
The Act envisages <strong>constitution</strong> <strong>of</strong> Central Information Commission <strong>and</strong> the State information<br />
Commissions.<br />
POWERS OF INFORMATION COMMISSIONS<br />
Commission has a duty to receive complaints from any person—<br />
— who has not been able to submit an information request because a PIO has not been<br />
appointed;<br />
— who has been refused information that was requested;<br />
— who has received no response to his/her information request within the specified time limits;<br />
— who thinks the fees charged are unreasonable;<br />
— who thinks information given is incomplete or false or misleading; <strong>and</strong><br />
— any other matter relating to obtaining information under this law.<br />
If the Commission feels satisfied, an enquiry may be initiated <strong>and</strong> while initiating an enquiry the<br />
Commission has same powers as vested in a Civil Court.<br />
The Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission during the inquiry <strong>of</strong><br />
any complaint under this Act may examine any record which is under the control <strong>of</strong> the public<br />
authority, <strong>and</strong> no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds. (Section 18)<br />
First Appeal: First appeal to the <strong>of</strong>ficer senior in rank to the PIO in the concerned Public Authority<br />
within 30 days from the expiry <strong>of</strong> the prescribed time limit or from the receipt <strong>of</strong> the decision (delay<br />
may be condoned by the Appellate Authority if sufficient cause is shown).<br />
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Second Appeal: Second appeal to the Central Information Commission or the State Information<br />
Commission as the case may be, within 90 days <strong>of</strong> the date on which the decision was given or<br />
should have been made by the First Appellate Authority (delay may be condoned by the Commission<br />
if sufficient cause is shown).<br />
Third Party appeal against PIO's decision must be filed within 30 days before first Appellate<br />
Authority; <strong>and</strong>, within 90 days <strong>of</strong> the decision on the first appeal, before the appropriate Information<br />
Commission which is the second appellate authority.<br />
Burden <strong>of</strong> proving that denial <strong>of</strong> information was justified lies with the PIO<br />
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