Teste de control la obstetrica si ginecologie in limba engleza pentru ...

Teste de control la obstetrica si ginecologie in limba engleza pentru examenul
de absolvire, anul VI
COMPLEMENT SIMPLU
1. How common is preeclampsia?
a. most pregnant women develop preeclampsia
b. about 25% of all women develop preeclampsia
c. about 15% of all women develop preeclampsia
d. about 3-5% of all women develop preeclampsia
e. very rare
d
2. What is the definition of an antepartum hemorrhage?
a. any vaginal hemorrhage between conception and delivery
b. any vaginal hemorrhage during labor
c. any vaginal hemorrhage between 28 weeks gestation and onset of labor
d. any vaginal hemorrhage between 12 weeks gestation and delivery
e. any vaginal hemorrhage between 28 weeks gestation and delivery
c
3. What is the most likely cause of a massive antepartum hemorrhage that threatens the
mother’s life?
a. rupture of the uterus
b. cervical carcinoma
c. trauma of the uterus
d. placenta praevia
e. placenta acretta
d
4. Which of the following will exclude a placenta praevia?
a. a careful speculum examination
b. a careful abdominal examination
c. the presence of fetal distress
d. a vaginal examination in theatre
e. painless bleeding
d
5. Preterm prelabor rupture of the membranes is defined as:
a. membranes that have ruptured at term, and not been followed by the onset of labor within 24
hours

. membranes that rupture before the second stage of labor
c. membranes that rupture before the active phase of labor
d. membranes that have ruptured before 37 weeks, in the absence of contractions
e. membranes that have ruptured before the onset of labor at any gestational age
d
6. Which patients are at highest risk of preterm labor?
a. patients who book early in pregnancy
b. multigravidas
c. patients living in low socio-economic circumstances
d. patients with vulvovaginitis
e. patients with a history of preterm labor in previous pregnancy
e
7. ß – mimetics (terbutalin, ritodrin) should not be used in a patient with:
a. asthma
b. preterm labor
c. multiple pregnancy
d. breech presentation
e. heart valve disease
e
8. The most appropriate tocolitic drug is considered:
a. terbutalin
b. magnesium sulphate
c. indometacin
d. nifedipin
e. ritodrin
d
9. Indometacin may be more dangerous to the fetus if given at or beyond:
a. 30 weeks
b. 33 weeks
c. 35 weeks
d. 37 weeks
e. 39 weeks
a
10. ß – mimetics should be used with grate caution in the following patients, except:
a. with heart diseases
b. with diabetes

c. with antepartum hemorrhage
d. with pyrexia
e. with asthma
e
11. How often should the fetal heart rate be monitored during the first stage of labor in low risk
pregnancies?
a. every 3 hours during the latent phase
b. every 2 hours in the latent phase
c. hourly in the active phase
d. every 30 minutes in the active phase
e. every 15 minutes in the active phase
d
12. Meconium staining of the liquor is commonest in:
a. patients with postterm labor
b. patients in term labor
c. patients in preterm labor
d. patients whose fetuses move a lot during pregnancy
e. patients with fetuses > 4000 gr
a
13. Meconium staining of the liquor:
a. is uncommon
b. occurs in 10-20 % of patients
c. occurs in 30-40% of patients
d. occurs in half of patients
e. occurs in most patients
b
14. What is the correct management when the liquor is meconium stained?
a. monitor the fetal heart rate carefully
b. deliver the fetus immediately by cesarean section
c. give the patient an oxitocin infusion to shorten the labor
d. give tocolitics
e. administer antibiotics
a
15. The latent phase of the first stage of labor is:
a. the period of time the cervix takes to dilate from 3 cm to full dilatation
b. the period of time from the onset of labor to full cervical dilatation

c. the period of time from the onset of labor to 3 cm cervical dilatation
d. the period of time during which the cervix becomes effaced
e. the period of time during which the cervix becomes ripen.
C
16. A patient presents in established labor with regular contractions. On vaginal examination the
cervix is 5 cm dilated. Where should her cervical dilatation be noted on the partogram?
a. on the alert line opposite 5 cm cervical dilatation
b. on the action line opposite 5 cm cervical dilatation
c. at the beginning of the latent phase of labor opposite 5 cm cervical dilatation
d. at the end of latent phase of labor opposite 5 cm cervical dilatation
e. on the vertical line at the beginning of the active phase of labor opposite 5 cm cervical
dilatation
a
17. When does a patient have adequate and effective uterine contractions ?
a. if she has 2 or more contractions every 10 minutes with each contraction lasting 30 seconds
or longer
b. if she has 3 or more contractions every 10 minutes with each contraction lasting 60 seconds
or longer
c. if she progresses normally during labor
d. if she has pain with every contraction
e. if the uterus is relaxed between each contraction
c
18. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion due to a small pelvic inlet should be diagnosed when:
a. there is no further dilatation of the cervix
b. there is 3/5 or more of the fetal head palpable above the pelvic brim and 2+ or more
moulding is present
c. there is 2/5 or less of the fetal head palpable above the pelvic brim and 1+ moulding is
present
d. the measurement of pelvic inlet are assessed as small during a pelvic examination
e. one hour passed after full dilatation
b
19. When does the second stage of labor begin and end?
a. from the time the patient has an urge to bear down until the infant is completely delivered
b. from the time the cervix is fully dilated until the infant is completely delivered
c. from the beginning of the active phase until the cervix is fully dilated
d. from the beginning of the active phase until the infant is completely delivered.
e. from the time the cervix is fully dilated until delivery of the fetus and placenta

20. What position in the second stage of labor should be discouraged
a. the dorsal position
b. the lateral position
c. the squatting position
d. the sitting position (in the special chair)
e. the kneeling position
a
21. The active phase of the first stage of labor is:
a. the period of time the cervix takes to dilate from 3 cm to full dilatation
b. the period of time from the onset of labor to full cervical dilatation
c. the period of time from the onset of labor to 3 cm cervical dilatation
d. the period of time during which the cervix becomes effaced
e. the period of time during which the cervix becomes ripen.
a
22. Which drug is not used for prevention of postpartum hemorrhage
a. oxitocine
b. ergometrine
c. carboprost
d. ritodrin
e. syntometrine
d
23. Passive management of the third stage of labor includes:
a. giving an oxytocic and then waiting for the sighs of placental separation
b. waiting for the signs of placental separation when the patient is asked to bear down and
spontaneously deliver the placenta
c. pulling down steadily on the umbilical cord and pushing the uterus up when the patient has a
contraction
d. giving an oxytocic drug when the signs of placental separation appear so that the placenta
can be spontaneously delivered
e. early cord clamping, use of oxytocic drug and controlled cord traction
b
24. What clinical findings indicate that the bleeding is from a tear?
a. the bleeding consists of a continuous stream of bright red blood
b. the uterus is atonic an abdominal palpation
c. the patient is shocked and pale

d. dark red clots of blood are passed when the uterus is rubbed up.
e. fragments of placenta are missing
a
25. What is the probable diagnosis of a patient suddenly becomes shocked without any sign of
vaginal bleeding during the third stage of labor and on abdominal examination the uterus
cannot be palpated?
a. an atonic uterus
b. a ruptured uterus
c. an inverted uterus
d. a cervical tear
e. placenta acretta
c
26. What is the most frequent cause of postpartum hemorrhage:
a. cervical and vaginal tears
b. uterine rupture
c. DIC syndrome
d. Coagulopathy
e. Uterine atonia
e
27. What is the first step in the management of a postpartum hemorrhage when the placenta has
already be delivered?
a. the uterus must be immediately rubbed up
b. a rapid intravenous infusion of 40 units of oxitocin should be started
c. the patient’s bladder must be emptied
d. the cause of bleeding must be looked for
e. the hematocrit, hemoglobin and blood group should be determined
a
28. Which sign suggest that an atonic uterus causes the bleeding?
a. the vaginal bleeding consists of a continuous stream of bright red blood
b. the membrane are not complete
c. the vaginal bleeding is intermittent and consist of dark red clots
d. no uterus can be palpated an abdominal examinations
e. signs of shock and acute abdomen are present
c
29. Which clinical sign suggests that the patient has acute pyelonephritis?
a. tenderness over the bladder

. edema
c. severe tenderness to percussion over one or both renal angles
d. severe tenderness in the upper abdomen
e. pain in the lower abdomen
c
30. What hormone is determined in urine for diagnosis of pregnancy?
a. prolactin
b. placental lactogen
c. chorionic gonadotropine
d. progesteron
e. oxytocine
c
31. In what disorder the level of chorionic gonadotropine is abnormally high?
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. preeclampsia
c. threatened abortion
d. twin pregnancy
e. trophoblastic disease
e
32. In what disorder the level of chorionic gonadotropine is abnormally low?
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. preeclampsia
c. fetal growth retardation
d. twin pregnancy
e. trophoblastic disease
a
33. Severe anemia in pregnant women is diagnosed if the level of hemoglobin is below:
a. 110 gr/l
b. 100 gr/l
c. 90 gr/l
d. 70 gr/l
e. 40 gr/l
d
34. The amniotic fluid index represents:

a. the total of the linear measurements of the largest amniotic fluid pockets noted on ultrasonic
inspection of each of the four quadrants of the gestational sac
b. the total of the linear measurements of the four largest amniotic fluid pockets noted on
ultrasonic inspection
c. the sum of the length of the two largest pockets of amniotic fluid
d. the sum of the length of the three largest pockets of amniotic fluid
e. the total of the linear measurements of the largest amniotic fluid pockets noted on ultrasonic
inspection of each half (superior and inferior) of the gestational sac
a
35. Oligohydramnios can be defined as an amniotic fluid index of less than:
a. 10 cm
b. 7 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 5 cm
e. 2 cm
d
36. Polihydramnios can be defined as an amniotic fluid index of more than:
a. 8 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 18 cm
e. 23 cm
e
37. The causes of polyhydramnios are the following, except:
a. maternal diabetes
b. absence of esophagus
c. neural tube defects
d. thoracic tumors
e. renal agenesis
e
38. A reactive non-stress is considered when:
a. a late acceleration is observed after each contraction
b. a late acceleration is observed only once
c. a late deceleration is observed after each contraction
d. at least two accelerations of fetal heart rate of 15 beats or more above the baseline or at least
15 seconds are observed during 20 minutes
e. an acceleration of fetal heart rate of 15 beats or more above the baseline for at least 15
seconds is observed is observed during 20 minutes

d
39. What is the largest part of the true pelvis:
a. the pelvic inlet
b. the plane of greatest diameter
c. mid-plane
d. upper plane
e. the pelvic outlet
b
40. The anterio-posterior diameter of 11-11,5 cm and transversal diameter of 13-13,5 cm is
characteristic for:
a. the pelvic inlet
b. the plane of greatest diameter
c. mid-plane
d. upper plane
e. the pelvic outlet
a
41. The anterio-posterior diameter of 12,5-12,75 cm and transversal diameter of 12,5 cm is
characteristic for:
a. the pelvic inlet
b. the plane of greatest diameter
c. mid-plane
d. upper plane
e. the pelvic outlet
b
42. The anterio-posterior diameter of 11-12 cm and transversal diameter of 10,5 cm is
characteristic for:
a. the pelvic inlet
b. the plane of greatest diameter
c. midplane
d. upper plane
e. the pelvic outlet
c
43. An incision of perineum is named:
a. labiotomy
b. episiotomy

c. lobotomy
d. sinciputotomy
e. peritoneotomy
b
44. A perineal laceration that extends into the subepithelial tissues of the vagina or perineum
with or without involvement of the muscles of the perineal body is defined as:
a. first degree perineal laceration
b. second degree perineal laceration
c. third degree perineal laceration
d. fourth degree perineal laceration
e. fifth degree perineal laceration
b
45. A perineal laceration involving the anal sphincter, without rectal mucosa is defined as:
a. first degree perineal laceration
b. second degree perineal laceration
c. third degree perineal laceration
d. fourth degree perineal laceration
e. fifth degree perineal laceration
c
46. A perineal laceration involving the rectal mucosa is defined as:
a. first degree perineal laceration
b. second degree perineal laceration
c. third degree perineal laceration
d. fourth degree perineal laceration
e. fifth degree perineal laceration
d
47. Likelihood of successful induction of labor is assessed using:
a. Bishop score
b. Apgar score
c. Silverman score
d. Dunkan score
e. Lucas score
a
48. Condition of a newborn infant is determined using:
a. Bishop score
b. Apgar score

c. Silverman score
d. Dunkan score
e. Lucas score
b
49. The most efficient intervention in improving outcomes of preterm delivered babies is:
a. administration of antibiotics
b. tocolisis
c. corticosteroids
d. administration of surfactant
e. thyroid hormones treatment
c
50. The fetus with postmaturity syndrome has he following, except:
a. loss of subcutaneous fat
b. long fingernails
c. dry, peeling skin
d. abundant hair
e. abundant vernix caseosa
e
51. Requirements for forceps application are the following, except:
a. fetal head is fully engaged
b. absence of feto-pelvic disproportion
c. the cervix is fully dilated
d. empty bladder
e. unruptured amniotic membranes
e
52. The most frequent complication of pregnancy in women with heart diseases is:
a. spontaneous abortion
b. premature delivery
c. fetal growth retardation
d. pielonefritis
e. hepatitis
c
53. All of the following complications occur most often in the third trimester EXCEPT:
a. premature labor
b. cervical incompetence
c. premature rupture of membranes

d. abruptio placenta
e. round ligament pain
e
54. Which of the following statements best describes a footling breech presentation?
a. the legs and thighs of the fetus are flexed
b. the legs are extended, and the thighs are flexed
c. the arms, legs, and thighs are completely flexed
d. the legs and thighs are extended
e. none of the above
d
55. What is the most appropriate management in case of failure of presenting part to descend in
the presence of adequate labor?
a. forceps delivery
b. cesarean section
c. oxitocin administration
d. prostaglandin administration
e. vacuum extraction
b
56. What is the most appropriate management in case of poor progress of cervical dilatation and
rare contractions in the first period of labor?
a. forceps delivery
b. cesarean section
c. oxitocin administration
d. prostaglandin administration
e. vacuum extraction
c
57. What is the most appropriate management in case of fetal hypoxia at the end of the second
stage of labor?
a. forceps delivery
b. cesarean section
c. oxitocin administration
d. prostaglandin administration
e. vacuum extraction
e
58. Diagnosis of pregnancy is based on determination of:
a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

. prolactin
c. human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
d. progesterone
a
59. Pregnancy maintenance is based on action of:
a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b. prolactin
c. human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
d. progesterone
e. estriol
d
60. Lactation is stimulated by:
a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b. prolactin
c. human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
d. progesterone
e. estriol
b
61. Involution of the uterus in postpartum period is induced by:
a. prostaglandin
b. prolactin
c. oxytocin
d. progesterone
e. estriol
c
62. Which of the substance stimulates gap-junction formation:
a. prostaglandin
b. indometacin
c. oxytocin
d. progesterone
e. magnesium sulfate
a
63. Which of the substance prevents gap-junction formation:
a. prostaglandin
b. indometacin
c. oxytocin

d. progesterone
e. magnesium sulfate
d
64. Which of the substance may produce premature closure of ductusarteriosus:
a. prostaglandin
b. indometacin
c. oxytocin
d. progesterone
e. magnesium sulfate
b
65. Which of the following is a common reservoir of toxoplasmosis?
a. school-age children
b. bird droppings
c. cats
d. contaminated seafood
e. blood
c
66. Which of the following is a common reservoir of HIV?
a. school-age children
b. bird droppings
c. cats
d. contaminated seafood
e. blood
e
67. Indications for a cesarean section include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. previous cesarean section
b. failed forceps delivery
c. fetal distress
d. cervical cerclage
e. cord prolapse
d
68. Prerequisites for a forceps delivery include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. a completely dilated cervix
b. an empty bladder
c. the vertex in the occiput anterior position
d. ruptured membranes

e. the known position of the vertex
c
69. What is indicated for prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in premature neonates:
a. heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexametazon
d. magnesium sulphate
e. prostaglandin
c
70. What is indicated for labor augmentation:
a. heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexametazon
d. magnesium sulphate
e. prostaglandin
b
71. What is indicated for prevention thromboembolic complications after cesarean section:
a. heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexametazon
d. magnesium sulphate
e. prostaglandin
a
72. What is indicated for preparation of cervix for induction of labor:
a. heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexametazon
d. magnesium sulphate
e. prostaglandin
e
73. What is indicated for treatment of eclampsia:
a. heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexametazon
d. magnesium sulphate
e. prostaglandin

d
74. What is indicated to stop premature uterine contractions:
a. Heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexametazon
d. nifedipine
e. prostaglandin
d
75. The interval between alert and action line on WHO partograph is:
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours
e. 5 hours
d
76. According to WHO partograph latent phase should not be more than:
a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 10 hours
e. 12 hours
C
77. Characteristics of the androgen insensitivity syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. an XY gonad
b. a vaginal pouch
c. breast development
d. pubic hair
e. the presence of mullerian-inhibiting factor
d
78. Papilomavirus infection is the causative factor of:
a. infertility
b. acute salpingitis
c. cervical cancer
d. ectopic pregnancy
e. endometriosis
c

79. Choose the most appropriate treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis infection:
a. penicillin
b. metronidasole
c. doxyciciline
d. ceftriaxone
e. ampicilline
b
80. Choose the most appropriate treatment for bacterial vaginosis:
a. Penicillin
b. Metronidasole
c. Doxyciciline
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Ampicilline
b
81. Choose the most appropriate treatment for Neiseria gonorrhea infection:
a. Penicillin
b. Metronidasole
c. Doxyciciline
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Ampicilline
d
82. Choose the most appropriate treatment for syphilis:
a. Penicillin
b. Metronidasole
c. Doxyciciline
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Ampicilline
a
83. Select the most appropriate therapy for congenital adrenal hyperplasia
a. estrogens and progestins
b. hydrocortisone
c. progestins
d. prostaglandin inhibitors
e. none of the above
b
84. What is the cariotype in Turner’s syndrome
a. X0
b. XX
c. XY
d. XXY
e. XYY

a
85. Cariotype X0, absence of secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhea, short stature, somatic
abnormalities. Diagnosis?
a. Kallman’s syndrome
b. Morris’s syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. Turner’s syndrome
e. Cushing’s syndrome
d
86. Cariotype XY, normal breast development, absence of pubic hear, amenorrhea, male gonads, vaginal
pouch. Diagnosis?
a. Kallman’s syndrome
b. Morris’s syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. Turner’s syndrome
e. Cushing’s syndrome
b
87. All of the following are contraindications to postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy EXCEPT
a. hypertension
b. acute liver disease
c. familial history of thromboembolic events
d. pelvic relaxation
e. premenopausal mastectomy for breast cancer
d
88. Risk factors for cervical cancer are the following EXCEPT:
a. first intercourse during adolescent years
b. multiple sexual partners
c. cigarette smoking
d. yearly menopause
e. immunosuppression, including HIV infection
d
89. Most circulating testosterone in women is derived from which of the following sources?
a. fat
b. ovary
c. skin
d. adrenal gland
e. muscle
d
90. The most frequent category of ovarian tumors are:

a
a. epithelial tumors
b. sex cord stromal neoplasms
c. germ cell tumors
d. teratomas
e. endodermal sinus tumors
91. Select the most appropriate therapy for dysmenorrhea
a. clomiphene citrate
b. hydrocortisone
c. progestins
d. prostaglandin inhibitors
e. none of the above
d
92. Colposcopy is a method of diagnosing pathology of:
a. ovary
b. fallopian tubes
c. cervix
d. uterus
e. vulva
c
93. Which of the following is a typical symptom associated with an abnormally enlarged 6- to 8-week
myomatous uterus?
a. acute crampy pain
b. urinary frequency
c. constipation
d. urinary retention
e. none of the above
e
COMPLEMENT MULTIPLU
94. Which of the following may be an early warning sigh of preeclampsia?
a. weight gain during the last months of pregnancy
b. generalized edema especially of the face
c. leg cramps
d. edema of the feet at the end of the day
e. pain on passing urine
a, b
95. What are important sighs of magnesium sulphate over-dosage?
a. respiratory depression

. hyperventilation
c. a urine output of less than 30 ml per hour
d. depressed tendon reflexes
e. tachycardia
a, d
96. Which of the following women has high risk of preeclampsia?
a. a patient with a history of preeclampsia starting early in the third trimester of a previous
pregnancy
b. a patient with chronic hypertension
c. grande multiparas
d. twin pregnancy
e. a patient with a history of postpartum hemorrhage
a, b, d
97. Which of the following patients are at increased risk of placenta praevia?
a. patients with multiple abortions
b. nuliparas
c. patients with intra-uterine fetal growth retardation
d. patients who smoke
e. patients with a history of premature delivery
a, d
98. Vaginal bleeding due to placenta praevia is usually associated with:
a. fetal parts that are difficult to feel and an absent fetal heart beat
b. fetal head not engaged
c. a uterus that is relaxed and not tender on palpation
d. lower abdominal pain
e. bright red color of the blood
b, c, e
99. Choose the correct statements regarding chorioamnionitis:
a. it causes all cases of preterm labor
b. it usually follows preterm rupture of membranes
c. should be treated with combination of antibiotics
d. it only occurs in patients with vaginitis
e. the most frequent sign is backache
b, c
100. Which complications are common if diabetes is not well controlled?
a. fetal macrosomia

. preeclampsia
c. oligohydramnios
d. polihydramnios
e. premature delivery
a, b, d
7. Clinical criteria of chorioamnionitis include:
a. headache and backache
b. vaginal bleeding
c. fetal tachycardia
d. purulent vaginal discharge
e. fever more than 38C
c, d, e
101. Which patients are at high risk of preterm labor?
a. patients who book early in pregnancy
b. patents with twin pregnancy
c. patients living in low socio-economic circumstances
d. patients with bacterial vaginosis
e. patients with a history of preterm labor in previous pregnancy
b, c, d, e
102. Management of patient with premature prelabor rupture of membranes include:
a. bimanual exploration of the cervix
b. prophylactic administration of antibiotics
c. administration of corticosteroids
d. transfer to a maternity with neonatological intensive care unit
e. estimation of gestational age as accurate as possible
b, c, d, e
103. How should the fetal heart rate be monitored in labor?
a. a cardiotocograph (CTG) should be used in high risk labors
b. in low risk pregnancies a fetal stethoscope is adequate
c. a doptone should be used in all high risk pregnancies
d. the fetal heart rate does not need to be monitored in all low risk pregnancies
e. if admission CTG is normal, fetal heart rate should not be monitored in labor
a, b
104. Which of the following are contraindications to giving syntometrine during the third
stage of labor?
a. an atonic uterus

. hypotension after delivery
c. gestational hypertension
d. preeclampsia
e. fetal macrosomia
c, d
105. Which drugs are used for prevention of postpartum hemorrhage
a. Oxitocin
b. ergometrine
c. calcium gluconate
d. ritodrin
e. syntometrine
a, b, e
106. Which oxytocic drugs may be given if there is a contraindication to the use of
syntometrine?
a. ergometrine
b. a combination of oxytocin and ergometrine
c. oxitocin
d. prostaglandin E2
e. misoprostol
c, d, e
107. Active management of the third stage of labor includes following components :
a. giving an oxytocic in the first minute after delivery
b. waiting for the signs of placental separation when the patient is asked to bear
down and spontaneously deliver the placenta
c. pulling down steadily on the umbilical cord and pushing the uterus up when the
patient has a contraction
d. giving an oxytocic drug when the signs of placental separation appear so that the
placenta can be spontaneously delivered
e. massage of the uterus after delivery of placenta
a, c, e
108. What are infrequent causes of postpartum hemorrhage:
a. cervical and vaginal tears
b. uterine inversion
c. DIC syndrome
d. Coagulopathy
e. Uterine atonia
b, c, d

109. Which complications are common if diabetes is not well controlled?
a. Fetal macrosomia
b. Preeclampsia
c. oligohydramnios
d. polihydramnios
e. premature delivery
a, b, d
110. Normal maternal adjustments in pregnancy include:
a. rise in cardiac output
b. hemodilution
c. decrease of diastolic pressure
d. increase in plasma volume
e. decrease in red blood cell mass
a, b, c, d
111. The causes of oligohydramnios are:
a. fetal growth retardation
b. renal agenesis
c. preeclampsia
d. neural tube defects
e. prelabor rupture of membranes
a, b, c, e
96. The causes of polyhydramnios are:
a. maternal diabetes
b. absence of esophagus
c. neural tube defects
d. preeclampsia
e. renal agenesis
a, b, c
112. The fetus with postmaturity syndrome has the following:
a. loss of subcutaneous fat
b. short fingernails
c. dry, peeling skin
d. long fingernails
e. abundant vernix caseosa
a, c, d

113. Indications for a cesarean section include:
a. previous cesarean section
b. placenta previa
c. fetal distress
d. cervical cerclage
e. cord prolapse
a, b, c, e
114. What is indicated for prevention of respiratory distress syndrome in premature neonates:
a. heparin
b. oxitocin
c. dexamethasone
d. magnesium sulphate
e. betamethasone
c, e
115. What is indicated to stop premature uterine contractions:
a. ritodrin
b. oxytocin
c. dexametazon
d. nifedipine
e. indometacine
a, d, e
116. Atrophic vaginitis would be expected in the following clinical situations:
a. menopause
b. oral contraceptive use
c. surgical castration in a young woman
d. pseudomenopause during endometriosis therapy
e. dysfunctional uterine bleeding
a, c, d
117. Which statements concerning the function of progesterone are correct:
A. it prepares endometrium for nidation
B. it relaxes the myometrium
C. it elevates serum binding protein
D. it increase basal body temperature
E. it is secreted by hypothalamus
a, b, d
118. Normal vaginal health depends on the following factors:
a. a pH of 4.5
b. Doderlein’s bacilli

c. Estrogen
d. Escherichia coli
e. Lactic acid production
a, b, c, e
119. The following are characteristic for androgen insensitivity syndrome (testicular feminization)
a. normal breast development
b. absence of pubic hear
c. amenorrhea
d. presents of uterus and tubes
e. male gonads
a, b, c, e
120. Choose drugs used for treatment for Candida vaginitis:
a. Penicillin
b. Miconazol
c. Nistatin
d. Ketoconazole
e. Metronidazole
b, c, d
121. Amenorrhea in a 16-year-old girl may result from the following conditions
a. imperforate hymen
b. androgen insensitivity syndrome
c. Turner’s syndrome
d. granulosa-theca cell tumor
e. estrogen producing tumor
a, b, c
122. What are the characteristics of follicular phase:
a. variable length
b. an elevated basal body temperature
c. development of ovarian follicles
d. secretion of estrogen from the ovary
e. vascular growth of the endometrium
a, c, d, e
123. Factors that are important in the pathophysiology of pelvic inflammatory disease include:
a. intrauterine device use
b. intercourse
c. menstruation
d. pregnancy termination
e. uterine fibroids
a, b, c, d

124. Which the following are characteristics of lutheal phase:
a. a fairly constant duration of 12-16 days
b. a decreased basal body temperature
c. the formation of corpus luteum of the ovary
d. secretion of progesterone
e. development of dominant follicle
a, c, d
125. Which statements are incorrect:
a. FSH stimulates follicular growth
b. GhRH is secreted in a pulsatile manner
c. LH stimulates secretion of estrogens by granulosa cells
d. GhRH stimulates synthesis and release of both FSH and LH
e. Progesterone decrease basal body temperature
c, e
126. Physiologic changes effected by oral contraceptives include:
A. suppression of ovulation
B. hostile cervical mucus
C. a hypo-estrogenic state
D. inactive endometrium
E. increase of gonadotropins
a, b, d
127. Which diseases and consequences are produced by Chlamidia trachomatis infection:
a. acute salpingitis
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. muco-purulent cervicitis
d. cervical cancer
e. urethritis
a, b, c, e
128. The etiologic factors of vulvovaginitis are:
a. Candida
b. Trichomonus
c. Lack of estrogens
d. Neiseria gonorrhea
e. Chlamidia trachomatis
a, b, c
129. The symptoms and signs of polycystic ovary disease are:
a. obesity
b. infertility
c. hyrsutism
d. polymenorrhea

e. increased volume of ovaries
a, b, c, e
130. Choose drugs used for treatment for Chlamidia trachomatis infection:
a. penicillin
b. metronidasole
c. doxyciciline
d. ceftriaxone
e. eritromicine
c, e
131. Which are the characteristics of Turner ‘s syndrome
a. cariotype X0
b. primary amenorrhea
c. somatic abnormalities
d. increased levels of estrogens
e. increased levels of gonadotropins
a, b, c, e
132. Select the options for treatment for dysfunctional uterine bleeding
a. estrogens and progestins
b. hydrocortisone
c. progestins
d. prostaglandin inhibitors
e. vacuum aspiration
a, c, e
133. The following hormones are produced in anterior pituitary:
a. FSH
b. Prolactin
c. LH
d. Vasopresin
e. TSH
a, b, c, e
134. The occurrence of menstruation is dependent upon the following factors:
a. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GhRH)
b. an endometrium responsive to sex steroids
c. gonadotropins
d. patent fallopian tubes
e. ovarian steroidal hormones
a, b, c, e

135. Procedures for treatment of cervical dysplasias are:
a. electrocautery
b. cryotherapy
c. laparoscopy
d. cold coagulation
e. laser vaporization
a, b, d, e
136. Risk factor for endometrial cancer are:
a. obesity
b. chronic anovulation/polycystic ovary disease
c. first intercourse during adolescent years
d. late menopause
e. exogenous unopposed estrogen
a, b, d, e
137. Ovarian tumors producing hormones are:
a. granulosa cell tumors
b. theca cell tumors
c. Sertoli-Leidig cell tumors
d. endometriod tumors
e. gonadoblastoma
a, b, c, e
138. Elevated gonadotropin levels are expected with which of the following conditions associated with
amenorrhea?
A. Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
B. Resistant ovary syndrom
C. Gonadal dysgenesis
D. Anorexia nervosa
E. Pituitary adenoma
b, c
139. An increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy has been associated with the following:
a. Endometriosis
b. Chronic salpingitis
c. Adenomyosis
d. Use of intrauterine devise (IUD)
e. Oral hormonal contraception
A, b, d
140. Known consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease include:
a. endometriosis
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. pelvic adhesions
d. sterility

, c, d
e. ovarian epithelial tumors
141. Which drug combinations would be appropriate in the management of acute pelvic inflammatory
disease:
a. doxycycline/metronidasole
b. cefoxitin/doxycycline
c. ofloxacine/clindamicine
d. ampicilline/gentamicine
e. penicilline / amoxicilline
a, b, c
142. Submucous myomas may be associated with the following signs and symptoms :
a. abnormal bleeding
b. reproductive failure
c. anemia
d. compression of adjacent organs
e. pedunculated characteristics
a, b, c, e
143. Defects in corpus luteum function may be demonstrated by the following procedures:
a. measurement of basal body temperature
b. endometrial byopsy and histology dating
c. measurement of serum progesterone levels
d. measurement of serum estrogen levels
e. measurement of FSH/LH levels
a, b, c
144. Which procedures are appropriate for evaluation of the endometrial cavity
a. laparoscopy
b. endometrial biopsy
c. hysterescopy
d. colposcopy
e. hysterography
b, c, e
145. Therapy for the correction of a cervical factor in infertility includes the following:
a. intrauterine insemination
b. progesterone in the second phase of menstrual cycle
c. antibiotics
d. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) injection
e. in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
a, c, e

146. Which factors are evidence that ovulation occurred:
a. a rise in basal body temperature
b. estrogen level above 25 mcg/ml
c. progesterone level above 3 ng/ml
d. secretory endometrium
e. the occurrence of menses
a, c, d
147. A poor postcoital test can be reflective of the following:
a. blocked fallopian tubes
b. low sperm count
c. poor sperm motility
d. poor cervical mucus
e. low level of gonadotropins
b, c, d
148. Myomas are associated with the following clinical conditions:
a. anemia
b. dysuria
c. low vaginal pH
d. dysmenorrhea
e. amenorrhea
a, b, d
149. Abnormalities in the cervical mucus may result from the following conditions:
a. colonization of the cervix with cytotoxic organisms
b. uterine retroversion
c. chronic infection of the cervix
d. previous electro-cauterization of the cervix
e. anti-sperm antibodies
a, c, d, e
150. Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed based on following features:
a. a pH of 6.0
b. “clue” cells
c. a pH