M.L. Syal's Helix Institute

24-3-2013
Sunday
Space for rough work
M.L. M.L. Sy Syal’ Sy al’
al’s Helix Helix Institute
Institute
S.C.O. 343-345, Top Floor, Sector 34-A, Chandigarh. Ph : 2624337, 2623155
Test Series for NEET(UG) - 2013
MM : 720 Phase-I(Test 1) Time : 3 hrs.
PHYSICS : UNITS, DIMENSIONS, ERROR, MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE, MOTION IN A PLANE, LAWS OF MOTION
CHEMISTRY : STRUCTURE OF ATOM, SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY, SOLUTIONS, S-BLOCK, PERIODIC PROPERTIES
ZOOLOGY : DIGESTIVE SYSTEM, RESPIRATORY SYSTEM BODY FLUIDS & CIRCULATION, EXCRETORY SYSTEM
BOTANY : THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATIONS (I/C VIRUSES, MONERA, PROTISTA, FUNGI) PLANT KINGDOM
1 A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 30 m/s in a
direction 45° above the horizontal. The distance
from the thrower to the point where the ball returns
to the same level is
(1) 100 m (2) 70 m
(3) 90 m (4) 36 m
2. A lift of is moving vertically upwards with a constant
retardation equal to ‘g’. At an instant, a stone
is projected from a point on the floor of the lift at
angle of elevation θ. Then, the trajectory of the
stone is
(1) a parabola in the lift frame
(2) a straight line in the lift frame
(3) a straight line in the ground frame
(4) circular in ground frame
3. A projectile is projected with a speed of 40 m/s at
an angle of projection θ such that tan θ=3/4. Then
(1) vertical component of the velocity of projection
is 24 m/s
(2) horizontal component of the velocity of projection
is 24 m/s
(3) vertical velocity at the highest point is 24 m/s
(4) horizontal velocity at the highest point is zero
4. Which of the following pairs of forces is not a valid
example of action and reaction to which Newton’s
3rd law of motion applies
(1) the forces of attraction felt by each of two
gas molecules passing near to each other
(2) the forces of attraction between an electron
and proton in a hydrogen atom
(3) the forces of repulsion between an atom of
the surface of a table and an atom of the surface
of a book resing on the table
(4) the centripetal force holding a satellite in a
orbit round the earth and weight of satellite
5. Which is the correct statement w.r.t. projectile
motion when the velocity of projection of a body is
made n times?
(1) its time of flight becomes n times
(2) its range becomes n times
(3) its maximum height becomes n times
(4) its range remains unchanged
6. The velocity of a particle is given by
b
2 + ct .
v = a + t
The unit of b will be
(1) m (2) m s 2
(3) m s –1 (4) m s –2
7. The velocity of projection of an oblique projectile
is v = ( 3î
+ 2jˆ
) m/s. The speed of the projectile at
the highest point of the trajectory is
(1) 3 m s –1 (2) 2 m s –1
(3) 13 m s –1 (4) Zero
8. Equation of path of a particle projected from ground
is given by y = 3x
−
1 2
x . Angle of projection
3
θ of the particle with horizontal is
(1) 60° (2) 45°
(3) 30° (4) 90°
9.
1
Dimensions of
µ 0ε0
usual meaning, are
, where symbols have their
(1) [L –1T] (2) [L –2T2 ]
(3) [L2T –2 ] (4) [LT –1 ]
1 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013

10. Which of the following pairs has the same dimensions?
(1) Torque and Planck’s constant
(2) Magnetic Moment and Force
(3) Latent heat and Specific heat
(4) Latent heat and gravitational potential
11. A physical quantity P is given as P=X–Y. If
X=8.6432 & Y=8.60, then considering significant
figures, the value of P is
(1) 0.0432 (2) 0.043
(3) 0.04 (4) 0.0
12. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity
of 5 m s –1 . In 10 second, the velocity changes
to 5 m s –1 northwards. The average acceleration
in this time is
(1)
1
–2 m s towards north–east
2
(2) zero
(3)
1
–2 m s towards north–west
2
(4) none of these
13. A man is throwing balls in air. He throws next ball
when previous one is at highest point. If he throws
each ball after 2 second, then height to which ball
rises is: [Take g=10 m s –2 ]
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(3) 30 m (4) 15 m
14. A balloon is going upwards with a velocity of
20 m s –1 . It releases a packet when it is at a
height of 160 m above the ground. The time
taken by the packet to reach the ground will
be
(1) 6 s (2) 8 s
(3) 10 s (4) 12 s
15. A particle starts from rest at time t=0 and
moves on a straight line with acceleration as
plotted in Figure. The speed of the particle will be
maximum after time
10
O
–10
–2
(a(ms )
2
4
t(s)
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
Space for rough work
16. A point object traversed half the distance with a
velocity 6 m s –1 . The remaining half of the distance
was covered with velocity 4 m s –1 for half the balance
time and with velocity 8 m s –1 for the rest of
the half time. The velocity of the object averaged
over the whole time of motion is
(1) 5 m s –1 (2) 5.35 m s –1
(3) 6 m s –1 (4) 9 m s –1
17. A particle is moving with constant initial velocity 4
m s –1 till t=1.5 s, then it accelerates at 10 m s –2
till t=3 s. The distance covered is
(1) 23.25 m (2) 36.25 m
(3) 40 m (4) 47.5 m
18. A length is measured as 1.20 m. This is the same
as
(1) 1200 mm (2) 0.0012 km
(3) 120 cm (4) 1.2×10 2 cm
19. The displacement –time graph of a particle at time
‘t’ makes an angle of 45 o with t–axis. After one
second it makes an angle of 60 o with the t–axis.
The acceleration of the particle is
(1) 1.732 m s –2 (2) 2.732 m s –2
(3) 0.732 m s –2 (4) 1 m s –2
20.
A
100 m 50 m/s
P
25 m/s
60°
An aeroplane is flying at a height of 100 m above
the ground with a uniform speed of 25 m/s. At the
instant, it crosses the point A, a projectile is fired
from point P, vertically below A, at an angle of 60°
with a speed of 50 m/s as shown. The minimum
distance between the projectile and the aeroplane
is
(1) 9.50 m (2) 6.25 m
(3) 10 m (4) 5 m
2 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013

21. F(N)
4
2.5
0 2 4 4.5 6.5
t(s)
A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5ms –1 . A force
acts on it for some time in the direction of motion.
The force time graph is shown in the above figure.
Find the speed of the body at t=2 second.
(1) 9.25 ms –1 (2) 5 ms –1
(3) 7 ms –1 (4) 4.25 ms –1
22. In the figure a force F is applied on a block at an
angle 30° with the horizontal, then the minimum
value of F in order that block is lifted off the floor
is
m
30º
F
(1) mg (2) 2mg
(3) 4mg (4) Zero
23. If a physical quantity is given by p=x2 +y. If error
in x is ± ∆x and error in y is ± ∆y then error in p
will be
(1)
∆p
2∆x
∆y
= +
p x y
(2)
∆p
2∆x
+ ∆y
=
2 p x + y
(3)
∆p
2x∆x
+ ∆y
=
2 p x + y
(4)
∆y
2∆x
+
∆p
=
x
2 p x + y
24. Which of the following graph is practically possible?
(1)
(3)
distance
speed
Space for rough work
t
t
(2)
(4)
v
a
t
t
25. A monkey is climbing up a tree at a speed of 3m/s.
A dog runs towards the tree with a speed of 4 m/s.
What is the relative velocity of dog as seen by the
monkey?
(1) 7 > m/s
(2) Between 5 m/s and 7 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) < 5 m/s
26. A projectile is projected with kinetic energy E at
an angle 37o with horizontal. The kinetic energy at
highest point will be
(1) 0.36 E (2) 0.6 E
(3) 0.64 E (4) 0.8 E
27. A projectile is thrown into air so as to have a
maximum horizontal range R. Taking the point of
projection as origin, the coordinates of the point
where the speed of particle is minimum
(1) (R, R) (2)
⎛ R ⎞
⎜R,
⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
(3)
⎛ R R ⎞
⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 2 4 ⎠
3 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013
(4)
⎛ R ⎞
⎜R,
⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠
28. The dimension of 1
2 ε 0 E2 (where symbols have their
usual meanings) is
(1) [ML 2 T –2 ] (2) [ML –1 T –2 ]
(3) [MLT –2 ] (4) [M –1 L –1 T –2 ]
29. If the error in the measurement of radius of a circle
is 2%, then the error in the measurement of its
perimeter is
(1) 1% (2) 4%
(3) 2% (4) 3%
30. A body of mass 5 kg moves in a straight line according
to the equation x = 2t 3 , where x denotes
the distance in metre and t the time in second. The
force on the body at t = 5 s is
(1) 60 N (2) 5 N
(3) 600 N (4) 300 N

31. A physical quantity P is related to four observables
a, b, c and d as follows :
32.
P=a 3 b 2 /( c d)
If the percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c
and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively, then
the percentage error in the quantity P is
(1) 9% (2) 18%
(3) 7% (4) 13%
X
O
The position-time graph of a body is as shown in
the figure above. Ratio of velocity during OA & AB
is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 9 : 16
33. If for a particle moving in a straight line, the position
of the particle at time (t) is given by
x = t 3 – 6t 2 + 3t + 7
what is the velocity of the particle when it’s
acceleration is zero?
(1) – 9 ms –1 (2) –12 ms –1
(3) 3 ms –1 (4) 42 ms –1
34.
35.
3 kg
2ms
2 kg 10N
–2
What is the acceleration of 3 kg mass when
acceleration of 2 kg mass is 2 ms –2 as shown in
figure?
(1) 3 ms –2 (2) 2 ms –2
(3) 0.5 ms –2 (4) zero
A force F = ( î + 4jˆ
) N acts on block as shown. The
force of friction in newton acting on the block is
(1) – î (2) –1.8 î
(3) – 2.4 î (4) –3 î
Space for rough work
B
t
36.
V(m/s)
15
10
5
0
4 8 10
t(sec)
If the velocity-time graph of a particle is given
above, then the ratio of the acceleration of the
particle at t=9 s to that at t=2 s is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) –4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) –2 : 1
37. The ratio of magnitude of the net force acting on a
stone of mass 0.1 kg just after it is dropped from
the window of a stationary train to that just after
it is dropped from the window of a train
accelerating at ‘a’ is
(1)
g
g + a
(2)
g
2 2
g + a
g
(3)
a
(4) 1
38. B
F
A
Two blocks A and B of masses 6 kg and 3 kg rest
on smooth horizontal surface. If the coefficient of
friction between A and B is 0.4, what is maximum
horizontal force which can make them move together
without separation?
(1) 20 N (2) 40 N
(3) 36 N (4) 72 N
4 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013

39.
45°
W
6 kg
In the figure, a block of weight 60 N is placed on a
rough surface. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the surfaces is 0.5. What can be
the maximum weight W such that the block does
not slip on the surface?(g=10 m/s2 )
60
(1) 60 N (2)
2 N
(3) 30 N (4)
30
2 N
40. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a velocity
of 4 km/h. A person moves on a straight road with
a velocity of 3 km/h. The apparent velocity of the
rain with respect to the person is
(1) 7 km/h (2) 5 km/h
(3) 4 km/h (4) 1 km/h
41. At the height 80 m, an aeroplane is moving with
150 m/s. A bomb is dropped from it so as to hit a
target. At what horizontal distance from the target
should the bomb be dropped
(1) 840 m (2) 600 m
(3) 80 m (4) 230 m
42. A car moving at a speed v is stopped in a certain
distance when brakes produce a deceleration a. If
the speed of the car was nv, what must be the
deceleration of car to stop it in the same distance?
(1) n a (2) na
(3) n2a (4) n3a 43. A man wants to cross the river to an exactly opposite
point on the other bank. If he can row his boat
with 2 times the velocity of water current, at
what angle to the river current must he keep the
boat moving.
(1) 60° (2) 90°
(3) 135° (4) 150°
Space for rough work
44. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of
inclination θ. The wedge is accelerated horizontally
so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The
force exerted by the wedge on the block has a
magnitude
(1) mg (2)
mg
cos θ
(3) mg cosθ (4) mg tanθ
45. A small body released on a rough inclined plane
of inclination θ and length L starts sliding downward.
The velocity of body at the bottom of incline
is
(1) 2gL(sin θ + µ cos θ)
(2) 2gL
sinθ
(3) 2gL(sin θ – µ cos θ)
(4) 2gL(sinθ − cos θ)
46. Calculate the percentage degree of dissociation of
an electrolyte XY 2 (Normal molar mass=164) in
water if the observed molar mass by measuring
elevation in boiling point is 65.6
(1) 75% (2) 25%
(3) 65% (4) 45%
47. Analyse the following graphs (A, B & C) and match
them with the given characteristics
BP
5 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013
A
B
C
Characteristics i. (+ve) deviation
ii. Ideal
iii. (–ve) deviation
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii (2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i
(3) A–ii, B–iii, C–i (4) A–ii, B–i, C–iii

48. Following graphs are made for the vapour pressure
(VP) of solution of same solute. Identify when its
concentration will be highest
1 atm
VP
I II III IV
Temeprature
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
49. 25 g ethylene glycol is present in 100 g water. The
solution is cooled to –10°C. K f for H 2 O is 1.86 K
kg mol –1 . The amount of ice separated on cooling
is
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g
(3) 75 g (4) 20 g
50. A near ultraviolet photon of 300 nm is absorbed
by a gas and then re-emitted as two photons. If
one photon is red with wavelength of 800 nm, the
wavelength of second photon is
(1) 460 nm (2) 1060 nm
(3) 480 nm (4) 440 nm
51. A cation M +2 has magnetic moment of 2
The element is
6 B.M.
(1) Mn(25) (2) Iron (26)
(3) Titanium (22) (4) Sodium (11)
52. Which of the following arrangements of electrons
is most likely to be stable?
3d 4s
(1)
(2)
(3)
53.
(4)
Anhydrous MgCl may be obtained by heating
2
MgCl .6H O
2 2
(1) until it fuses
(2) with lime
(2) with coal
(4) in a current of dry HCl
Space for rough work
54. Rakesh needs 1.71 g of sugar (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) to
sweeten his tea. The number of carbon atoms
present in his tea are
(1) 3.6×10 22 (2) 7.2×10 21
(3) 0.05×10 23 (4) 6.6×10 22
55. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?
(1) First I.P. of Al is less than the first I.P. of Mg
(2) Second I.P. of Mg is greater than the second
I.P. of Na
(3) First I.P. of Na is less than the first I.P. of Mg
(4) Third I.P. of Mg is greater than the third I.P.
of Al
56. The block of periodic table which contains the element
with configuration
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 is
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(3) d-block (4) f-block
57. If a light of wavelength λ hits the moving electron,
the uncertainty in measurement of its position will
be
(1) greater than λ
(2) less than λ
(3) equal to λ
(4) it can have any value
58. Which one of the following has maximum tendency
to form complexes?
(1) Ca (2) Ba
(3) Be (4) K
59. The number of gram equivalents in 100 ml of 1 M
H 2 SO 4 is ?
(1) 200 (2) 0.1
(3) 0.2 (4) 100
60. If the uncertainty in position and momentum are
equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
(1)
(3)
1
2m
1
m
h
π
h
π
6 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013
(2)
(4)
h
2π
h
π

61. Analyse the following data
Atom Atomic radius
a. Li i. 186
b. B ii. 143
c. Na iii. 88
d. Be iv. 152
Choose the correct match
(1) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
(2) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv
(4) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii
62. If an element has the outermost electronic configuration
(n–2)f7 (n–1) d1 ns2 & n=6, then the
group and period of the element respectively are
(1) 3rd ; 6th (2) 6th ; 6th
(3) 6th ; 3rd (4) 3rd ; 7th
63. Arrange the following type of radiations in increasing
order of frequency
a. radiation from microwave oven
b. amber light from traffic signal
c. radiation from FM radio
d. cosmic rays from outer space
e. X rays
(1) d

76. Which is incorrect about solution?
(1) Solution is a homogenous mixture of two or
more than two components
(2) Sodium amalgam is an example of solid solution
(3) Solvent determines the physical state in which
solution exist
(4) Hydrogen in palladium is a type of gaseous
solution
77. Which of the following is commonly used as an
antifreeze in car radiators?
(1) Urea (2) Sucrose
(3) Ethylene glycol (4) Glucose
78. An elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 g of
solute (molar mass=100) in 100 g of water is ∆ T . b
The ebullioscopic constant for water is
(1) 10 (2) 10 ∆ Tb (3) ∆ Tb (4)
∆Tb
10
79. When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C 11 H 8 O 2 ) is dissolved
in 50 g of benzene (K f =1.72 kg mol –1 ), a freezing
point depression of 2K, is observed. The Van’t Hoff
factor (i) is
(1) 0.5 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
80. The vapour pressure of a solution of 5 g of non
electrolyte in 100 g of water at a particular temperature
is 2985 Nm –2 . The vapour pressure of pure
water at that temperature is 3000 Nm –2 . The molecular
weight of the solute is
(1) 180 (2) 90
(3) 270 (4) 200
81. The mol fraction of ethylene glycol in aqueous solution
containing 20% ethylene glycol by mass
(1) 0.068 (2) 0.932
(3) 6.8 (4) 68
82. Which of the following phenomena are not based
on osmosis?
(1) A raw mango placed in concentrated salt solution
loses water and shrivels into pickle.
(2) People taking a lot of salt develop swelling
called edema
(3) Low oxygen content in blood causes climbers
to become weak and unable to think, clearly,
a condition known as anoxia
(4) When RBC’s are placed in concentrated NaCl
solution they get shrink
Space for rough work
83. Van’t Hoff factor (i) is maximum for
(1) AlCl 3 (2) CaCl 2
(3) NaCl (4) Na 2 SO 4
84. Identify the mismatch
(1) highest IE in group 18 : He
(2) highest EA in group 17 : Cl
(3) highest EA in group 16 : O
(4) highest IE in group 15 : N
85. Li 2 CO 3 on warming decomposes to give
(1) Li 2 O+CO 2
(2) LiO+CO
(3) Li 2 C 2
(4) it does not decompose
86. The correct order of solubility is
(1) Mg(OH) 2 bromide>iodide
(4) fluoride>chloride>iodide>bromide
88. Which of the following statements is false for alkali metals?
(1) Li is strongest reducing agent
(2) Na is amphoteric in nature
(3) Li + is exceptionally small
(4) All alkali metals give blue coloured solutions
in liquid ammonia
89. Among KO 2 , RbO 2 , Na 2 O 2 , Li 2 O, unpaired electron
is present in
(1) Li 2 O and Na 2 O 2 (2) KO 2 and RbO 2
(3) KO 2 only (4) Na 2 O 2 only
90. A metal M form water soluble sulphate and water
insoluble hydroxide M(OH) 2 . Its oxide MO is amphoteric
and possess high melting point. Element is
(1) Be (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) Sr
91. Inactive enzymes for protein digestion of pancreas
are activated by the
(1) factors released by peptic cells
(2) enzymes released by Brunner’s glands
(3) enzymes released by intestinal mucosa
(4) enzymes released by pancretic acinar cells
8 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013

92. Chylomicrons are
(1) undigested protein complexes
(2) undigested carbohydrates
(3) proteins coated with phospholipids
(4) fat droplets coated with proteins
93. Delay /decrease in clotting of blood is attributed to
a. reduction in number of platelets
b. decrease in Ca +2 ion concentration blood
c. Activation of fibrinogen
d. Inactivation of thrombokinase
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(3) c and d (4) a, b and d
94. The special sensitive region formed by cellular
modifications in the distal convulated tubule and
the afferent arteriole is triggered by
(1) fall in GFR
(2) increase in GFR
(3) not affected by GFR
(4) increase in blood volume
95. The state of heart when it is not pumping blood
effectively enough to meet the needs of the body
is in disorder
(1) Coronary artery disease
(2) Heart failure
(3) Hypertension
(4) Cardiac arrest
96. Gradient in the inner medullary interstitium of kidney
is because of
(1) NaCl & urea (2) NaCl & KCl
(3) Urea & H 2 O (4) NaCl & proteins
97. Nucleic acids ⎯ ⎯→
) i (
Nucleotides ⎯ ⎯→ ⎯
) ii (
Nucleosides
In the above given scheme, what are (i) and (ii) and
their sources; choose the correct option
(1) (i) Nucleases – Pancreatic juice
(ii) Nucleotidases – Bile juice
(2) (i) Nucleases – Intestinal juice
(ii) Nucleotidases – Intestinal juice
(3) (i) Nucleases – Pancreatic juice
(ii) Nucleotidases – Intestinal juice
(4) (i) Nucleotidases –Intestinal juice
(ii) Nucleosidases –Bile juice
98. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Process of utilisation of absorbed substances
by the tissues is called assimilation
(2) Egestion of faeces to the outside through the
anal opening is an involuntary process
(3) Egestion is carried out by mass peristaltic
movement
(4) Solidified coherent faeces in the rectum initiate
a neural reflex causing an urge for its
removal
Space for rough work
99. Angina is correctly defined as
(1) Deposition of fat and cholesterol in arterial
lumen
(2) Inefficient pumping of blood due to lung congestion
(3) Acute chest pain due to deficient oxygen supply
to heart
(4) Complete stoppage of heart beat
100. Which of the following is a strong vasoconstrictor
and stimulates the release of aldosterone
(1) Renin, a peptide
(2) Angiotensinogen, a protein
(3) Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide
(4) Angiotensin-II, a peptide
101. The enzyme present in succus entericus forming
end products of amino acids is
(1) Maltases (2) Dipeptidases
(3) Nucleosidases (4) Carboxypeptidases
102. Generation of gradient for inspiration is created
only when
a. intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric
pressure
b. there is negative pressure in the lungs
c. intra pulmonary is higher than atmospheric
pressure
d. increase in the volume of thoracic chamber
in anteroposterior axis by diphragm
(1) a and b (2) a, b and d
(3) b and d (4) b, c and d
103. Oxyhaemoglobin is favoured by
(1) high PO 2 , low PCO 2 , less H + conc. and less
temperature in alveoli
(2) low PO 2 , high PCO 2 , high H + conc., high temperature
in tissues
(3) high PO 2 , high H + conc., less PCO 2 in alveoli
(4) both (1) and (2) are correct
104. Find the correct answer
a. Sponges i. tracheal tubes
b. Earthworm ii. moist cuticle
c. Insects iii. entire body surface
d. Aquatic arthropods iv. vascularised bags
e. Reptiles v. gills
(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–v, e–iv
(2) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–v, e–iv
(3) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i, e–v
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv, e–v
105. What would happen if all oxyntic cells are removed
from the gastric epithelium?
(1) Deficiency of vitamin B 12
(2) More amount of gastric juice
(3) Non-secretion of gastric juice
(4) Lack of enzymes in gastric juice
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106.
Oxygen dissociation curve for Hb is sigmoid. Lower
side and upper side of graph indicates respectively
(1) unloading of O and loading of O 2 2
(2) loading of O and unloading of O 2 2
(3) unloading of CO and loading of O 2 2
(4) loading of CO and unloading of O 2 2
107. Bowman’s capsule, lung alveoli, linning of blood
vessel have
(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) Ciliated epithelium
(3) columnae epithelium
(4) stratified squamous epithelium
108. The movement of air into and out of the lungs is
carried out by creating pressure gradient between
(1) lungs and atmosphere
(2) lungs and thoracic cavity
(3) lungs and pleura
(4) both (1) and (2)
109. Absobed NaCl is returned to interstitium by
(1) collecting tubule
(2) ascending portion of vasa recta
(3) descending portion of vasa recta
(4) henle’s loop
110. As the blood passes through the capillaries in tissues,
some
( a)
alongwith many watersoluble
substances, move out leaving
( b)
and most of
( c)
in the blood vessels.
a b c
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
water larger
proteins
blood smaller
proteins
Lymph larger
proteins
formed
elements
Space for rough work
larger
proteins
formed
elements
formed
elements
formed
elements
Lymph
111. Animals accumulate urea, uric acid and ions, ei-
ther by
( a)
or by
( b)
(1) a = metabolic activities,
b=excessive ingestion
(2) a=egestion
b=metabolic activities
(3) a= circulation
b = ingestion
(4) a = excretion
b = egestion
112. Ammonia
(1) is generally excreted by gill surfaces in all
fishes
(2) is produced by metabolism of urea in liver of
Mammals.
(3) will be excreted by many bonyfishes and
aquatic amphibians
(4) is most toxic form and requires less amount
fo water for its elimination
113. Inspiratory reserve volume is
(1) Volume of air inspired or expired during normal
breathing per minute
(2) Additional volume of air inspired by forceful
inspiration
(3) Total volume of air inspired after expiration
(4) It is approximately 4500 to 5000 ml
114. Inspiration is characterised by
(1) Relaxation of diaphragm
(2) Increase in the volume of thoracic chamber
(3) Contraction of the external intercostal
muscles
(4) Both (2) and (3)
115. The diffusion membrane is made up of all the layers
given below except for
(1) sgnamouse epithelium of alveoli
(2) endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(3) Basement membrane in between the epithelia
(4) Compound epithelium
116. In the above given table x, y and z are respectively
Blood
group
Antigens
on RBCs
Antibodies
in plasma
A x anti-B
O Nil y
AB z Nil
(1) a, a & b anti A, B
(2) A anti A, B, A & B
(3) anti-A, nil, anti B
(4) anti B, anti-A nil
117. Which secretion is not correctly matched to its
source?
(1) Intrinsic factor –chief cell of gastric gland
(2) Amylase – pancreatic juice
(3) Lactase – succus entericus
(4) Lysozyme – saliva
10 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013
.

118. Carbonic anhydrase
(1) is present in RBCs in high concentration and
forms H CO 2 3
(2)
−
facilitates the formation of HCO 3 and H + at
tissue level.
(3)
(4)
catalyses the formation of CO and H O from
2 2
H CO at the alvelar level
2 3
all the above
119. The most and the least abundant leucocytes are
respectively
(1) Neutrophils and monocytes
(2) Neutrophils and basophils
(3) Monocytes and basophils
(4) Lymphocytes and eosinophils
120. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented by administering
(1) anti-Rh antigen to the pregnant female
(2) anti-Rh antibodies to the newborn
(3) anti-Rh antibodies to the pregnant female
(4) anti-Rh antigens to the newborn.
121. Cortical nephrons differs from juxta medullary
nephrones in
(1) having smaller loop of Henle
(2) possessing well developed vasa recta
(3) having most of their part in medulla
(4) both (2) and (3)
122. On comparing the partial pressures (in mm Hg) of
O and CO in alveoli and tissue levels. What is
2 2
true
(1) High PO and PCO in alveoli
2 2
(2) High PO and PCO in tissues
2 2
(3) High PO in alveoli but high PCO in tissue
2 2
(4) High PCO in alreoli high PO in tissues.
2 2
123. Emulsification is the function of
(1) Bile salts, lipases
(2) Bile juice
(3) Bile pigments, Lipase
(4) Proteases, Bile juice
124. Which statement is true for cardiac cycle?
a. As bicuspid and tricuspid valves close, blood
flows into right and left ventricle respectively
b. Ventricular systole increases the ventricular
pressure causing opening of semilunar valve
c. Generation of action potential by SAN stimulates
both the atria to undergo simultaneous
contraction
d. At the time of joint diastole all the heart valves
remains closed
(1) both c and d (2) both b and c
(3) both a and c (4) both a and b
125. Two conditions i.e. reduction in the absorption of
food and feeling of fullness are the symptoms of
____________ and ____________ respectively
(1) vomiting, diarrhoea
(2) diarrhoea, constipation
(3) diarrhoea, indigestion
(4) vomiting, indigestion
Space for rough work
126. Which of statement is correct?
(1) Intestine is located in the upper left portion
of abdominal cavity
(2) Small intestine is distinguishable into colon,
caecum and rectum
(3) Epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the
trachea
(4) Submucosa layer forms glands in the stomach
127. If a man from sea coast of Kerala goes to Mount
Everest
(1) his breathing rate and heartbeat will increase
(2) his breathing rate and heartbeat will decrease
(3) his breathing rate will increase but heartbeat
will decrease
(4) his breathing rate will decrease but heartbeat
will increase
128. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(1) Emphysema –Reduced respiratory
surface
(2) Asthma –Spasm in bronchial
muscles
(3) Cyanide poisoning –Stagnant hypoxia
(4) Bronchitis –Inflammation of
bronchi & bronchioles
129. Which of the following statements pertains to the
human kidney?
a. Reddish brown, bean shaped structures
b. Situated between third thoracic & last lumbar
vertebra
c. Blood vessels & nerve enter through hilus
d. Outer layer is a tough capsule
(1) a, b, c & d (2) a, b & c
(3) a, c & d (4) b, c & d
130. Which of these are applicable to Henle’s loop?
a. Tubular reabsorption in this segment is minimum
b. The ascending & descending limbs are not permeable
to water
c. Henle’s loop plays a major role in the
maintanance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid
d. Ascending limb is the diluting segment
(1) a, b & c (2) b, c & d
(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & d
131. Which of the following events does not occur in
DCT?
(1) Conditional reabsorption of Na + & water
(2)
–
Reabsorption of HCO 3 & selective secretion
of H +
(3) maintenance of sodium–potassium balance in
blood
(4) Reabsorption of glucose & amino acids
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132. Tissue fluid is
(1) Blood –(WBCs + larger proteins)
(2) Blood – (RBCs+ platelets+ larger proteins)
(3) Plasma+lymphocytes+platelets
(4) serum+ lymphocytes
133. The condition affecting dissociation of
oxyhaemoglobin are
(1) excess of CO 2 in blood
(2) less affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen
(3) increased acidity and decreased pH
(4) all of these
134. Following are enzymes associated with the digestive
system of human
a. Ptyalin b. Chymotrypsin
c. Pepsin d. Carboxypeptidase
e. Dipetidase
Mark the correct sequence of their activity w.r.t.
anterior to posterior part of alimentary canal
(1) a, b, c, d & e (2) c, a, b, d & e
(3) c, a, b, e & d (4) a, c, b, d & e
135. Final steps in digestion occur very close to
(1) mucosal epithelial cells of intestine
(2) submucosa
(3) serosa
(4) muscular layer
136. A taxon with reference to classification of living
organisms can be defined as
(1) a group of similar species
(2) a group of organisms based on chromosome
morphology
(3) a group of organisms of any rank in hierarchial
classification
(4) a group of similar organisms belonging to specific
rank
137. PEN (Primary endosperm nucleus) is formed by fusion
of
(1) one male gamete + 1 egg
(2) two male gamete +2 polar nuclei
(3) one male gamete+2polar nuclei
(4) 1 polar nuclei +2 male gametes
138. Euglena resembles higher plants in having
(1) chlorophyll a & c
(2) chlorophyll a & b
(3) cell wall
(4) starch as reserve food
139. Starting with 2 3 bacterial cells, how many bacteria
will be produced after 120 minutes if bacteria
undergo binary fission after every 15 minutes.
(1) 8×2 6 (2) 2 8 ×2 8
(3) 8×2 16 (4) 2 3 ×256
140. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. gymnosperm?
(1) Gymnosperms are heterosporous
(2) Mainly restricted to cold temperate regions
(3) Presence of ovule
(4) Generally adventitious root system
Space for rough work
141. Genetic material of most of the bacteria is a
(1) single stranded naked DNA molecule
(2) double stranded naked DNA molecule
(3) double stranded DNA coiled with the help of
histones
(4) single stranded DNA molecule coiled with the
help of histones
142. Sub –viral infectious agents with very low molecular
weight RNA causes
(1) PSTD (2) yellow fever
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Tobacco mosaic
143. Strobili or cones are found in which of the following
group of plants?
(1) Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum
(2) Selaginella, Cycas, Equisetum
(3) Selaginella, Pinus, Adiantum
(4) Selaginella, Pteris, Equisetum
144. Classification systems have undergone several
changes over a period of time because
(1) the criteria for classification have changed
(2) of improvement in our understanding of evolutionary
relationship
(3) new species are being discovered
(4) both 1 & 2
145. Numerical taxonomy of organisms is based on
(1) DNA characteristics
(2) evolutionary relationship between various organisms
(3) all observable characteristics
(4) sexual characteristics
146. In which organism to its cell wall composition is
correctly matched?
(1) Euglena - Chitin + polysaccharides
(2) Laminaria - Cellulose + algin
(3) Rhizopus - Chitin + peptidoglycan
(4) Sequoia - Cellulose + silica
147. Sexual cycle in fungi involves three steps
a. Fusion of cytoplasm between two motile or
non motile gametes called plasmogamy
b. Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy
c. Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores
Sequence of these steps is
(1) c, a, b (2) a, c, b
(3) b, a, c (4) a, b, c
148. What is true for archaebacteria?
(1) All halophiles (2) All photosynthetic
(3) Strictly anaerobes (4) Oldest living beings
149. Which is not correct about two kingdom classification?
(1) It placed photosynthesizing green algae and
non–photosynthesizing fungi together in
plantae.
(2) Unicellular organisms like bacteria were considered
as plants
(3) Complexity of the cell & nuclear organisation
were used to segregate the groups
(4) Plants were segregated from animals on the
basis of locomotion and mode of nutrition
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150. Classification of plants based on chromosome number
is
(1) cytotaxonomy
(2) numerical taxonomy
(3) biochemical taxonomy
(4) all of these
151. In five kingdom classification all multicellular decomposers
are put in the kingdom
(1) monera (2) fungi
(3) protista (4) animalia
152. Fungi are always
(1) Saprophytes (2) Parasites
(3) Heterotrophs (4) autotrophs
153. The name virus that means
(1) venom or poisonous fluid was given by Pasteur
(2) venom or poisonous fluid was given by
Ivanowsky
(3) infectious fluid was given by Pasteur
(4) proteinaceous fluid given by Pasteur
154. The most common type of asexual spore in algae
is
(1) Hypnospore (2) Zoospore
(3) Akinetes (4) Aplanospore
155. Pick the odd one
(1) Felidae (2) Canidae
(3) Carnivora (4) Muscidae
156. Protista is a link between
(1) bacteria and green algae
(2) virus and bacteria
(3) prokaryotic and multicellular eukaryotic organisms
(4) dinoflagellates and zooflagellates
157. Edible brown algae is
(1) Laminaria (2) Porphyra
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
158. The entities not included in any of the five kingdoms
of Whittaker, are
(1) viruses (2) Viroids and Prions
(3) Bacteriophages (4) all of these
159. Which bacteria play a great role in recycling of
nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and
sulphur?
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(2) Chemosynthetic heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(4) All bacteria
160. Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacterial cells
is known as
(1) episome (2) mesosome
(3) lomasome (4) sphaerosome
161. Which one of the following algae belongs to
chlorophyceae having pyrenoid?
(1) Gelidium (2) Gracilaria
(3) Porphyra (4) Spirogyra
Space for rough work
162. First cell of gametophytic generation of a fern plant
is
(1) spore (2) gamete
(3) zygote (4) embryo
163. Pick up the mismatch from the options
(1) Selaginella - microphylls
(2) Equisetum - strobilus
(3) Ferns - macrophylls
(4) Salvinia - homosporous
164. Sporophyte of which one of the following is not
free living and is attached and dependent on parent
gametophyte
(1) Marchantia (2) Salvinia
(3) Pteris (4) Adiantum
165. The free living, inconspicous, small but multicellular
mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte of
pteridophytes is called
(1) protonema (2) prothallus
(3) gametophore (4) both (1) and (3)
166. Heterosporous plants are
(1) Selaginella, Polytrichum, Pinus, Cedrus
(2) Selaginella, Salvinia, Cycas, Mangifera
(3) Selaginella, Polytrichum, Dryopteris, Lycopodium
(4) Selaginella, Adiantum, Dryopteris, Marchantia
167. How many female gametes are present in female
gametophyte in angiosperm?
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 0
168. Which of the following statements is not correct
w.r.t. kingdom plantae and its members?
(1) It includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes,
gymnosperms and angiosperms
(2) Fungi, members of monera and protista having
cell walls have now been excluded from
plantae
(3) Linnaeus classified plants mainly on the basis
of androecium structure
(4) Artificial classfication system of plants gives
more weightage to vegetative characters as
compared to sexual characters
169. Identify the algae
(1) A-Nostoc; B-Dictyota; C-Polysiphonia
(2) A-Volvox; B-Dictyota; C-Chara,
(3) A-Volvox, ; B-Dictyota; C-Polysiphonia
(4) A-Volvox; B-Fucus ; C-Polysiphonia
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170. Which of the following statement is correctly given
for Cycas?
(1) It is a heterosporous gymnosperm having
branched stem, bearing male & female cones
on same plant
(2) It is a homosporous gymnosperm having unbranched
stem, bearing male & female strobili
on different plants
(3) It is a heterosporous gymnosperm having unbranched
stem, bearing male & female reproductive
structure on different plants
(4) It is a heterosporous gymnosperm having
branched stem, bearing male & female cones
on different plants
171. Plants of this group are diploid and well adapted to
extreme conditions. They grow bearing sporophylls
in compact structures called strobili/cones having
ovule. The group in reference is
(1) monocots (2) dicots
(3) pteridophytes (4) gymnosperms
172. Find the odd among the following
(1) Selaginella (2) Sphagnum
(3) Pteris (4) Lycopodium
173. From the following graphic representation identify
the type of life cycle
Zygote (2n)
Sporophyte
(2n)
Syngamy
B
A
Gametogenesis
(n)
Meiosis
(1) haplodiplontic (2) haplontic
(3) diplohaplontic (4) diplontic
Space for rough work
174. Smallest living cells which can survive without oxygen
and are pathogenic to animals & plants are
(1) Chlamydiae (2) Eubacteria
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma
175. Red algae lack
(1) chlorophyll-a (2) flagellate gametes
(3) r-phycoerythrin (4) floridean starch
176. Horsetails and Polytrichum are included in
(1) pteridophyta
(2) pteridophyta and bryophyta respectively
(3) bryophyta and pteridophyta respectively
(4) bryophyta
177. Kingdom fungi differs from kingdom plantae in
(1) chemical composition of cell wall
(2) mode of nutrition
(3) reserve food material
(4) all of these
178. Female cone is composed of
(1) microsporophyll (2) megasporophyll
(3) sporophyll (4) megasporangia
179. Genus comprises a group of related species which
has more characters in common in comparison to
(1) species of other genera
(2) species of same genera
(3) genera of same family
(4) genera of different families
180. Which of the following is not the feature of
liverworts?
(1) Formation of gemmae
(2) Asexual reproduction by fragmentation
(3) Presence of protonema and leafy stages of
gametophyte
(4) Dorsiventral thallus closely appressed to the
substratum
14 1PCZB/TS-Phase-I/HMC-9(17-20)/2013