biology - Career Point

Syllabus :
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : Full Syllabus
(MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION)
(Class XII / XII pass student)
MAJOR TEST # 6 (PRE PATTERN)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BIOLOGY
Duration : 3 Hrs. Max. Marks : 800
Name :________________________________________________________ Roll No. : ________________________
GENERAL:
TARGET - AIPMT
Instructions to Candidates
1. This paper contains 200 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. There is Negative Marking. Guessing of answer is harmful.
3. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided on this cover page of question paper.
4. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be
provided for rough work.
5. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
6. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilator.
7. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and
Electronic Gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
MARKING SCHEME:
1. Each Question has four options, only one option is correct. For each incorrect response, one-mark
would be deducted.
2. In Physics : Q. 1 - 50 carry 4 marks each,
In Chemistry : Q. 51 - 100 carry 4 marks each,
In Biology : Q. 101 - 200 carry 4 marks each,
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TS – X– MJ – XII-VI
Now, Schedule practice questions are available on internet also, Visit www.examtayari.com
SEAL

Space for Rough Work (jQ dk;Z gsrq LFkku)
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Questions 1 to 45 are multiple choice questions. Each
question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.1 Out of the following pair, which one does NOT
have identical dimensions is-
(1) work and torque
(2) moment of inertia and moment of a force
(3) impulse and momentum
(4) angular momentum and Plank's constant
Q.2 An inclined plane makes an angle θ with the
horizontal. A groove cut in the plane makes an
angle α with OX. The acceleration of a body which
is free to slide down the groove under the influence
of gravity is-
O
α
(1) g (2) g sin θ
(3) g sin θ cos α (4) g sin θ sin α
Q.3 Refer to figure. All surfaces are frictionless. The
ratio of T1 and T2 is-
T2
T1
3kg 12kg 15kg 30°
θ
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Q.4 A body acted upon by a force F has an acceleration
'A'. When it is acted upon by two forces each of
magnitude F at right angles to each other, its
acceleration will be -
(1) 2A (2) A (3) A 2 (4) 2
Q.5 A block is projected up an inclined plane of
inclination 30° with velocity v. If µ is the
coefficient of friction, then the block moves up a
distance of-
(1)
(3)
v
g(
1+
2
v
2
1+
3µ
3µ
)
v
(2)
g
2
2
v
(4)
µ
X
F
PHYSICS
iz'u 1 ls 45 rd cgqfodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds pkj
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls dsoy ,d fodYi
lgh gSA
Q.1 fuEu ;qXeksa esa ls fdldh foek;sa ,d leku ugha gS -
(1) dk;Z rFkk cyk?kw.kZ
(2) tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ rFkk cy vk?kw.kZ
(3) vkosx rFkk laosx
(4) dks.kh; laosx rFkk Iykad fu;rkad
Q.2 ,d vkur ry {kSfrt ds lkFk θ dks.k cukrk gSA ry
esa OX ds lkFk α dks.k cukrs gq;s ,d [kkapk (groove)
dkVk tkrk gSA xq:Ro ds izHkko esa [kkaps esa ls Lora=k
:i ls uhps fQlyus okyh ,d oLrq dk Roj.k gS -
O
α
θ
X
(1) g (2) g sin θ
(3) g sin θ cos α (4) g sin θ sin α
Q.3 fp=k esa] lHkh lrgsa ?k"kZ.k jfgr gSA T1 rFkk T2 dk
vuqikr gS-
3kg
T2
12kg
T1
15kg
F
30°
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Q.4 ,d oLrq ij ,d cy F }kjk dk;Z fd;s tkus ij
Roj.k 'A' gSA tc bl ij F ifjek.k okys nks cy
ijLij yEcor~ dk;Z djrs gS] rks bldk Roj.k gksxk-
(1) 2A (2) A (3) A 2 (4) 2
Q.5 ,d CykWd dks 30° >qdko dks.k ds vkur ry ij v osx
ds lkFk Åij iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn µ ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad
gks] rc CykWd Åij dh vksj fuEu nwjh r; djrk gS -
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(1)
(3)
v
g(
1+
2
v
2
1+
3µ
3µ
)
v
(2)
g
2
2
v
(4)
µ

Q.6 An electric motor of 100 W power drives a stirrer
in a water bath. Only 80% of the energy supplied to
the motor is used up in stirring water. The work
done on water in 1 second is-
(1) 100 J (2) 80 J (3) 180 J (4) 145 J
Q.7 If the frequency of the rotating platform is f and the
distance of a boy from the centre is r, what is the
area swept out per second by the line connecting
the boy to the centre ?
(1) πrf (2) 2πrf (3) πr 2 f (4) 2πr 2 f
Q.8 A coin placed on a rotating turntable just lips if it
is placed at a distance of 4 cm from the centre. If
the angular velocity of the turntable is doubled, it
will just slip at a distance of-
(1) 1cm (2) 2 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 8 cm
Q.9 A particle crosses the top most point H of a vertical
circle with critical speed. Then the ratio of
velocities at points L, M and H is-
H
L
90°
90°
M
(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 5 2 : 3 2 : 1 2 (4) 5 : 3 : 1
Q.10 Given : A U-shaped uniform wire of sides 2l, l and
l. The x and y co-ordinates of the centre of mass of
each side are shown in figure. The x and y coordinates
of the centre of mass of wire are
respectively -
y
2l
⎛ l ⎞
⎜ , 2l
⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
(0, l)
O
⎛ l ⎞
⎜ , 0⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
l x
(1)
⎛ l l ⎞
⎜ , ⎟ (2) (l, l) (3)
⎛ ⎞
⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 4 4 ⎠
⎝ 4 ⎠
l
l (4)
⎛ l ⎞
⎜ , l ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠
Q.6 100 W 'kfDr dh ,d fo|qr eksVj ikuh ds ,d Vc esa
,d foyksMd dks pykrh gSA eksVj dks lIykbZ dh xbZ
ÅtkZ dk dsoy 80% Hkkx gh ikuh dks foyksfMr djus esa
dke vkrk gSA 1 lsd.M esa ikuh ij fd;k x;k dk;Z gS -
(1) 100 J (2) 80 J (3) 180 J (4) 145 J
Q.7 ;fn ,d ?kw.khZ IysVQkeZ dh vko`fÙk f rFkk ,d yM+ds
dh dsUnz ls nwjh r gks] rks yM+ds dks dsUnz ls feykus
okyh js[kk }kjk izfrlsd.M fdruk {ks=kQy ?
(1) πrf (2) 2πrf (3) πr 2 f (4) 2πr 2 f
Q.8 ,d ?kw.kZu dj jgh ?kw.khZ Vscy ij j[kk ,d flDdk Bhd
fQly tkrk gS ;fn bls dsUnz ls 4 cm dh nwjh ij j[kk
tkrk gSA ;fn ?kw.khZ Vscy dk dks.kh; osx nqxquk gks tk;s]
rks ;g fdl nwjh ij Bhd fQly tkrk gS -
(1) 1cm (2) 2 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 8 cm
Q.9 ,d d.k ,d Å/okZ/kj o`Ùk ds 'kh"kZre fcUnq H ls
Økafrd pky ds lkFk xqtjrk gSA rc fcUnqvksa
L, M o H ij osxksa dk vuqikr gS -
H
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90°
90°
M
L
(1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 5 2 : 3 2 : 1 2 (4) 5 : 3 : 1
Q.10 fn;k gS : ,d U-vkd`fr dk ,d leku rkj ftldh
Hkqtk;sa 2l, l rFkk l gSA izR;sd Hkqtk esa nzO;eku dsUnz ds
x o y funsZ'kkad fp=kkuqlkj gSA rkj ds nzO;eku dsUnz
ds x o y funsZ'kkad Øe'k% gS -
2l
y
⎛ l ⎞
⎜ , 2l
⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
(0, l)
O
⎛ l ⎞
⎜ , 0⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
l x
(1)
⎛ l l ⎞
⎜ , ⎟ (2) (l, l) (3)
⎛ ⎞
⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 4 4 ⎠
⎝ 4 ⎠
l
l (4)
⎛ l ⎞
⎜ , l ⎟
⎝ 4
⎠

Q.11 In forced oscillation of a particle, the amplitude is
maximum for a frequency ω1 of the force, while the
energy is maximum for a frequency ω2 of the
force ; then -
(1) ω1 < ω2 when damping is small and ω1 > ω2
when damping is large
(2) ω1 > ω2
(3) ω1 = ω2
(4) ω1 < ω2
Q.12 A uniform chain of length L and mass M overhangs
a horizontal table with its two-third part on the
table. The friction coefficient between the table and
the chain is µ. The work done by the friction during
the period the chain slips off the table is-
1
2
(1) − µ MgL (2) − µ MgL
4
9
4
(3) − µ MgL
9
6
(4) − µ MgL
7
Q.13 A geostationary satellite is orbiting the Earth at a
height of 6R above the surface of the Earth, R being
the radius of the Earth. The time period of another
satellite at a height of 2.5R from the surface of
Earth is-
(1) 6 2 h (2) 6 h (3) 6 3 h (4) 10 h
Q.14 The radius of the Earth shrinks by 1%, its mass
remaining the same. The percentage change in the
value of g is-
(1) –2 % (2) + 2% (3) –3 % (4) + 4%
Q.15 A fast moving neutron suffers one-dimensional
elastic collision with a nucleus 7N 14 . What
approximate percentage of energy is lost by the
neutron in the collision ?
(1) 5 % (2) 10 % (3) 25 % (4) 0 %
Q.16 The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a
pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a
volume V, will be-
(1) PV = 5RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT
(3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (5/32) RT
Where R is the gas constant.
Q.11 ,d d.k ds d`f=ke nksyu esa, cy dh vko`fÙk ω1 ds
fy, vk;ke vf/kdre gksrk gS tcfd cy dh vko`fÙk
ω2 ds fy, ÅtkZ vf/kdre gksrh gS] rc -
(1) ω1 < ω2 tc voeanu vYi gS rFkk ω1 > ω2 tc
voeanu vf/kd gS
(2) ω1 > ω2
(3) ω1 = ω2
(4) ω1 < ω2
Q.12 L yEckbZ rFkk M nzO;eku dh ,d le:i psu ,d
{kSfrt est ls blizdkj yVdh gqbZ gS fd bldk nks
frgkbZ Hkkx est ij gksrk gSA est rFkk psu ds e/;
?k"kZ.k xq.kkad µ gSA ml vof/k ds e/; ?k"kZ.k }kjk
fd;k x;k dk;Z tc psu est ls fQly tkrh gS-
1
2
(1) − µ MgL (2) − µ MgL
4
9
4
6
(3) − µ MgL (4) − µ MgL
9
7
Q.13 ,d HkwfLFkj mixzg i`Foh dh lrg ds Åij 6R Å¡pkbZ
ij i`Foh dk ifjØe.k dj jgk gSA R i`Foh dh f=kT;k
gSA i`Foh dh lrg ls 2.5R Å¡pkbZ ij vU; mixzg
dk vkorZdky gS -
(1) 6 2 h (2) 6 h (3) 6 3 h (4) 10 h
Q.14 i`Foh dh f=kT;k 1% ladqfpr gks tkrh gS tcfd
bldk nzO;eku leku cuk jgrk gS] rks g ds eku esa
izfr'kr ifjorZu gS-
(1) –2 % (2) + 2% (3) –3 % (4) + 4%
Q.15 ,d rhoz xfreku U;wVªkWu ,d ukfHkd 7N 14 ds lkFk
,dfoeh; izR;kLFk VDdj djrk gSA VDdj esa U;wVªkWu
}kjk yxHkx fdrus izfr'kr ÅtkZ dh gkfu gksrh gS ?
(1) 5 % (2) 10 % (3) 25 % (4) 0 %
Q.16 P nkc o T rki ij vkWDlhtu ds 5 g ds fy, voLFkk
lehdj.k tc V vk;ru izkIr dj fy;k tkrk gS]
gksxh]
(1) PV = 5RT (2) PV = (5/2) RT
(3) PV = (5/16) RT (4) PV = (5/32) RT
tgk¡ R xSl fu;rkad gSA
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Q.17 Which of the following circular rods (given radius r
and length l) each made of the same material and
whose ends are maintained at the same temperature
will conduct most heat ?
(1) r = r0; l = l0 (2) r = 2r0; l = l0
(3) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 (4) r = r0; l = 2l0
Q.18 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv for the gas is-
3 4
(1) (2)
2
3
5
(3) 2 (4)
3
Q.19 The graph, shown in the adjacent diagram,
represents the variation of temperature (T) of two
bodies x and y having same surface area, with time
(t) due to the emission of radiation. Find the correct
relation between the emissivity (e) and absorptivity
power (a) of the two bodies.
T
x
t
(1) ex > ey and ax < ay (2) ex < ey and ax > ay
(3) ex > ey and ax > ay (4) ex < ey and ax < ay
Q.20 If the temperature of the sun were to increase from
T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the ratio of
the radiant energy received on earth to what it was
previously will be-
(1) 32 (2) 16
(3) 4 (4) 64
Q.21 The displacement y of a particle in a medium can
be expressed as
y = 10 –6 sin (100t + 20x + π/4)m
y
where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of
the wave is-
(1) 20 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 2000 m/s (4) 5π m/s
Q.17 fuEu o`Ùkkdkj NM+ksa (f=kT;k r o yEckbZ l) tks izR;sd
leku inkFkZ ls cuh gS rFkk ftuds fljs leku rki
ij j[ks gSa] eas ls dkSulh lcls vf/kd Å"ek dk pkyu
djsxh ?
(1) r = r0; l = l0 (2) r = 2r0; l = l0
(3) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 (4) r = r0; l = 2l0
Q.18 ,d :)ks"e izØe ds nkSjku ,d xSl dk nkc blds
ije rki ds ?ku ds vuqØekuqikrh ik;k tkrk gSA xSl
ds fy, Cp/Cv gS -
3
(1)
2
4
(2)
3
(3) 2
5
(4)
3
Q.19 layXu xzkQ esa fofdj.k mRltZu ds dkj.k leku
i`"Bh; {ks=kQy okyh nks oLrqvksa x o y ds rki (T) dk
le; (t) ds lkFk ifjorZu n'kkZ;k x;k gS] rks nksukas dh
oLrqvksa dh mRltZu {kerk (e) rFkk vo'kks"k.k {kerk
(a) ds e/; lgh lEcU/k Kkr djsaA
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T
x
t
(1) ex > ey ,oa ax < ay (2) ex < ey ,oa ax > ay
(3) ex > ey ,oa ax > ay (4) ex < ey ,oa ax < ay
Q.20 ;fn lw;Z dk rki c

Q.22 A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5
beats per second with the vibrating string of a
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per
second when the tension in the piano string is
slightly increased. The frequency of the piano
string before increasing the tension was-
(1) (256 + 5) Hz (2) (256 + 2) Hz
(3) (256 – 2) Hz (4) (256 – 5) Hz
Q.23 An earthquake generates both transverse (S) and
longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth. The
speed of S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that of P
waves is about 8.0 km/s. A seismograph records P
and S waves from an earthquake. The first P wave
arrives 4.0 minute before the first S wave. The
epicentre of the earthquake is located at a distance
of about
(1) 25 km (2) 250 km
(3) 2500 km (4) 5000 km
Q.24 A star is moving away from the Earth with a
velocity of 10 5 ms –1 . The shift in the spectral line of
wavelength 5700 Å, as observed on Earth, is-
(1) 0.53 Å (2) 1.06 Å
(3) 1.90 Å (4) 3.08 Å
v
Q.25 An engine running at speed sounds a whistle of
10
frequency 600 Hz. A passenger in a train coming
v
from the opposite side at speed experiences
15
this whistle to be of frequency f. If v is speed of
sound in air and there is no wind, f is nearest to.
(1) 710 Hz (2) 630 Hz
(3) 580 Hz (4) 510 Hz
Q.26 A charged oil drop is suspended in a uniform field
of 3 × 10 4 V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The
charge on the drop will be- (Take the mass of the
charge = 9.9 × 10 –15 kg and g = 10 m/s 2 )
(1) 1.6 × 10 –18 C (2) 3.2 × 10 –18 C
(3) 3.3 × 10 –18 C (4) 4.8 × 10 –18 C
Q.22 vKkr vko`fÙk 256 Hz dk ,d Lofj=k f}Hkqt ,d
fi;kuks dh dfEir Mksjh ds lkFk 5 foLiUn izfr lsd.M
nsrk gSA foLiUn vko`fÙk ?kVdj 2 foLiUn izfr lsd.M
gks tkrh gS] tc fi;kuks Mksjh esa ruko FkksM+k lk c

Q.27 In figure, a fuse in one of the bulbs causes all the
other to go out. Which bulb has fused ?
1
4
2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 or 5
Q.28 Four capacitors are connected as shown in figure.
The approximate charge and potential across 8µF
capacitance will be respectively
5
3
6µF 4µF 8µF 36µF
A B
40 volt
(1) 320 µC; 40 volt (2) 400µC; 50 volt
(3) 213µC; 27 volt (4) 360µC; 45 volt
Q.29 Fuse wire is a wire of -
(1) high resistance and high melting point
(2) high resistance and low melting point
(3) low resistance and low melting point
(4) low resistance and high melting point
Q.30 In the potentiometer circuit shown in figure. V and
R are set to give a potential gradient 10 mV/cm on
the wire MN. If R' = 2.000 ohm, and the null point
occurs at MP = 82.8 cm, the current through R' is
V
R
M
R'
G
(1) 0.414 A (2) 0.828 A
(3) 1.656 A (4) 0.207 A
Q.31 A charged particle of energy 15 eV moves through
a perpendicular magnetic field. The energy of the
particle on emerging out of the magnetic field is-
(1) 15 eV
(2) > 15 eV
(3) < 15 eV
(4) may be more or less than 15 eV depending on
the sense of the applied field
P
N
Q.27 fp=k esa] ,d cYc ds ;wt gksus ij ckfd lHkh cYc
cq> tkrs gSaA rks dkSulk cYc ;wt gksrk gS ?
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1
4
2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 or 5
Q.28 pkj la/kkfj=k fp=kkuqlkj tqM+s gSaA 8µF /kkfjrk ds
la/kkfj=k ij vkos'k rFkk foHko ds eku gksasxs Øe'k% &
5
3
6µF 4µF 8µF 36µF
A B
40 volt
(1) 320 µC; 40 oksYV (2) 400µC; 50 oksYV
(3) 213µC; 27 oksYV (4) 360µC; 45 oksYV
Q.29 ;wt rkj og rkj gS ftldk-
(1) mPp izfrjks/k rFkk mPp xyukad gS
(2) mPp izfrjks/k rFkk vYi xyukad gS
(3) vYi izfrjks/k rFkk vYi xyukad gS
(4) vYiizfrjks/k rFkk mPp xyukad gS
Q.30 fp=k esa iznf'kZr foHkoekih ifjiFk esa V rFkk R rkj MN ij
10 mV/cm dh foHko izo.krk fn;s tkus ds fy, O;ofLFkr
gSA ;fn R' = 2.000 vkse rFkk vfo{ksi fcUnq MP = 82.8 cm
ij izkIr gksrk gS] rks R' ls izokfgr /kkjk gS&
V
R
M
R'
G
(1) 0.414 A (2) 0.828 A
(3) 1.656 A (4) 0.207 A
Q.31 15 eV ÅtkZ dk ,d vkosf'kr d.k ,d yEcor~
pqEcdh; {ks=k ls xqtjrk gSA pqEcdh; {ks=k ls ckgj
fudyus ij d.k dh ÅtkZ gS -
(1) 15 eV
(2) > 15 eV
(3) < 15 eV
(4) 15 eV ls vf/kd ;k de ;g vkjksfir {ks=k dh
izd`fr ij fuHkZj djrk gS
P
N

Q.32 A frog can be levitated in a magnetic field produced
by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the
frog. This is possible because the body of the frog
behaves as-
(1) paramagnetic
(2) diamagnetic
(3) ferromagnetic
(4) antiferromagnetic
Q.33 Alternating current can not be measured by DC
ammeter because-
(1) average value of current for complete cycle is zero.
(2) AC changes direction
(3) AC can not pass through DC ammeter
(4) DC ammeter will get damaged
Q.34 A metallic rod falls under gravity with ends
pointing in the direction east and west. Then-
(1) an emf is induced in it as it cuts H (horizontal)
(2) no emf is induced at all
(3) two emf's of equal but opposite signs are
induced giving no net emf.
(4) the gravitational field opposes its downward
motion
Q.35 Which one of the following spherical lenses does
not exhibit dispersion ? The radii of curvature of
the surfaces of the lenses are as given in the
diagrams-
(1) R1 R2
R1 ≠ R2
(2) R ∞
(3) R R (4)
R ∞
Q.36 A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in
an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R
of identical shape and of the same material as P are
now added as shown in figure. The ray will now
suffer-
P
Q
(1) greater deviation
(2) no deviation
(3) same deviation as before
(4) total internal reflection
R
Q.32 ,d esa

Q.37 Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and
4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the
wavelengths is nearest to-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Q.38 A radiation of energy E falls normally on a
perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is-
(1) Ec (2) 2E/c
(3) E/c (4) E/c 2
Q.39 If a star converts all of its Helium into oxygen
nucleus, find the amount of energy released per
nucleus of oxygen. He = 4.0026 amu, O = 15.9994
amu-
(1) 7.26 MeV (2) 7 MeV
(3) 10.24 MeV (4) 5.12 MeV
Q.40 If radius of the 27 Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6
13
fermi, then the radius of 125 Te nucleus be nearly-
52
(1) 5 fermi (2) 4 fermi
(3) 8 fermi (4) 6 fermi
Q.41 The band gap in Germanium and Silicon in eV
respectively is-
(1) 0.7, 1.1 (2) 1.1, 0.7
(3) 1.1, 0 (4) 0, 1.1
Q.42 What should be height of transmitting antenna if the
T.V. telecast is to cover a radius of 128 km ?
(1) 4000 (2) 6000
(3) 2000 (4) Infinite
Q.43 The diagram shows a logic network-
NAND
AND
NOT
NOT NAND
Which single gate is equivalent to the network ?
(1) AND (2) NAND
(3) NOR (4) EX-OR
Q.37 lksfM;e rFkk dkWij ds dk;ZQyu Øe'k% 2.3 eV rFkk
4.5 eV gSA rc mudh rjaxnS/;Z dk vuqikr gS] yxHkx -
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Q.38 E ÅtkZ dh fofdj.k ,d iw.kZ ijkorZd lrg ij
vfHkyEcor~ fxjrh gSA lrg dks LFkkukUrfjr laosx gS -
(1) Ec (2) 2E/c
(3) E/c (4) E/c 2
Q.39 ;fn ,d rkjk bldh lEiw.kZ ghfy;e dks vkWDlhtu
ukfHkd esa cny ns] rks izfr vkWDlhtu ukfHkd eqDr
ÅtkZ dh ek=kk Kkr dhft,A
He = 4.0026 amu, O = 15.9994 amu
(1) 7.26 MeV (2) 7 MeV
(3) 10.24 MeV (4) 5.12 MeV
Q.40 ;fn 27 Al ukfHkd dh f=kT;k 3.6 QehZ vkadh tk;s] rc
13
125 ukfHkd dh f=kT;k yxHkx gS -
52
(1) 5 QehZ (2) 4 QehZ
(3) 8 QehZ (4) 6 QehZ
Q.41 tesZfu;e rFkk flfydu esa cU/k vUrjky eV esa Øe'k%
gS -
(1) 0.7, 1.1 (2) 1.1, 0.7
(3) 1.1, 0 (4) 0, 1.1
Q.42 laizs"k.k ,aVhuk dh Å¡pkbZ D;k gksuh pkfg, ;fn T.V.
izlkj.k 128 km dh f=kT;k ds {ks=k esa fd;k tkuk gks ?
(1) 4000 (2) 6000
(3) 2000 (4) vuUr
Q.43 fp=k esa ,d rdZ ifjiFk n'kkZ;k x;k gS-
NAND
AND
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NOT
NOT NAND
dkSulk ,dy }kj ifjiFk ds rqY; gS?
(1) AND (2) NAND
(3) NOR (4) EX-OR

Q.44 In which frequency range, space waves are
normally propagated?
(1) HF (2) VHF
(3) UHF (4) SHF
Q.45 Which of the following is not correct ?
(1) A ⋅ B = A + B
(2) A + B = A⋅
B
(3) ( A ⋅ B)
⋅(
A⋅
B)
= AB + AB
(4) 1 + 1 = 1
A & R Type Questions :
This section contains 5 questions numbered 46 to 50,
(A & R type question). Each question contains
Assertion and Reason.
The following questions given below consist of
an Assertion and Reason Type questions. Use
the following Key to choose the appropriate
answer.
(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is
a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.
Q.46
Q.47
Assertion : If a man is walking on a rough road,
the work done by the frictional force is positive.
Reason: Frictional force acts in the direction of the
motion of the man.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Assertion : In a progressive wave motion, particle
velocity is constant at all times.
Reason : During the propagation of sound, the
density of medium is uniform throughout.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.48 Assertion : If the terminals of the primary of a
transformer are connected across a battery then no
emf is induced across the secondary in steady state.
Reason : Battery provides a steady current, so
there is not change in flux linked with the
secondary.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.44 fdl vko`fÙk ijkl esa ] vUrfj{k rjaxs yEcor~:i ls
lapfjr gksrh gS ?
(1) HF (2) VHF
(3) UHF (4) SHF
Q.45 fuEu esa ls dkSulk xyr gS ?
(1) A ⋅ B = A + B
(2) A + B = A⋅
B
(3) ( A ⋅ B)
⋅(
A⋅
B)
= AB + AB
(4) 1 + 1 = 1
dFku ,oa dkj.k izdkj ds iz'u %
bl [k.M esa 46 ls 50 rd 5 iz'u gSa, (dFku rFkk dkj.k izdkj
ds iz'u)A izR;sd iz'u esa dFku rFkk dkj.k fn;s x;s gSaA
uhps fn;s x;s fuEufyf[kr iz'u "dFku" rFkk "dkj.k"
izdkj ds iz'u gSaA vr% mfpr mÙkj dk p;u djus ds
fy;s fuEu rkfydk dk mi;ksx dhft;sA
(A) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk dkj.k
dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
(B) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu
dkj.k( dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
(C) ;fn dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(D) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA
Q.46 dFku : ;fn ,d vkneh ,d [kqjnjh lM+d ij py jgk
gS] rks ?k"kZ.kcy }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z /kukRed gksrk gSA
dkj.k : ?k"kZ.kcy vkneh dh xfr dh fn'kk esa dk;Z djrk gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.47 dFku : ,d izxkeh rjax xfr esa] d.k osx gj le; fu;r
jgrk gSA
dkj.k : /ofu ds lapj.k ds nkSjku] ek/;e dk ?kuRo
lHkh txg ,d leku gksrk gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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Q.48
dFku : ;fn ,d VªkalQkeZj dh izkFkfed dq.Myh ds
VfeZuyksa dks cSVjh ls tksM+ ns rc LFkk;h voLFkk esa
f}rh; dq.Myh ij dksbZ fo-ok-cy izsfjr ugha gksrkA
dkj.k : cSVjh ,d fLFkj /kkjk iznku djrh gS] blfy,
ogk¡ f}rh;d dq.Myh ds lkFk lEc) yDl esa ifjorZu
ugha gksrk gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.49
Q.50
Assertion : Virtual image are always erect.
Reason: Virtual images are formed by diverging
lenses only.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Assertion : On increasing the frequency of light
more number of photoelectrons are emitted.
Reason: The number of electrons emitted not
depends on the intensity of incident light.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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Q.49
dFku : vkHkklh izfrfcEc ges'kk lh/kk gksrk gSA
dkj.k : vkHkklh izfrfcEc dsoy vilkjh ySalksa }kjk curs
gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.50 dFku : izdk'k dh vko`fÙk dks c

Q.51 The correct order of decreasing first ionization
energy is -
(1) C > B > Be > Li (2) C > Be > B > Li
(3) B > C > Be > Li (4) Be > Li > B > C
Q.52 Which of the following does not represents the
correct order of the property indicated ?
(1) Sc 3+ > Cr 3+ > Fe 3+ > Mn 3+ Ionic radii
(2) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn Density
(3) Mn 2+ > Ni 2+ < Co 2+ < Fe 2+ Ionic radii
(4) FeO < CaO > MnO > CuO Basic nature
Q.53 Arrange S, O and Se in ascending order of electron
affinity –
(1) Se < S < O (2) O < Se < S
(3) S < O < Se (4) S < Se < O
Q.54 Which of the following process involves the
cleavage of covalent bonds ?
(1) Evaporation of water
(2) Sublimation of iodine
(3) Formation of atomic hydrogen
(4) Melting of sodium metal
Q.55 Among the species given below, the largest angle
around the central atom is in -
(1) −
3
I (2) +
I (3) −
NO (4) H2O
3
Q.56 Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the greatest
and the least ionic character the respectively -
(1) LiCl, RbCl (2) RbCl, BeCl2
(3) RbCl, MgCl2 (4) MgCl2, BeCl2
Q.57 In which of the following reactions does water acts
as oxidising agent ?
(1) 3F2 + 3H2O → 6HF + O3
(2) C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g)
(3) Ca3P2 + 6H2O → 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3
(4) 2Cl2 + 2H2O → 4HCl + O2
2
CHEMISTRY
Q.51 izFke vk;uu ÅtkZ dk lgh ?kVrk Øe gS -
(1) C > B > Be > Li (2) C > Be > B > Li
(3) B > C > Be > Li (4) Be > Li > B > C
Q.52 fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk Øe n'kkZ;s x;s xq.kksa ds
lgh Øe dks iznf'kZr ugh djrk ?
(1) Sc 3+ > Cr 3+ > Fe 3+ > Mn 3+ vk;fud f=kT;k
(2) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn ?kuRo
(3) Mn 2+ > Ni 2+ < Co 2+ < Fe 2+ vk;fud f=kT;k
(4) FeO < CaO > MnO > CuO {kkjh; izÑfr
Q.53 S, O rFkk Se dks bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk ds vkjksgh Øe esa
O;ofLFkr gS -
(1) Se < S < O (2) O < Se < S
(3) S < O < Se (4) S < Se < O
Q.54 fuEufyf[kr dkSuls izØe esa lgla;kstd ca/kksa dk
fo[k.Mu gksrk gS ?
(1) ty ds ok"ihdj.k
(2) vk;ksMhu ds m/oZikru
(3) ijekf.od gkbMªkstu ds fuekZ.k
(4) lksfM;e /kkrq ds fi?kyus
Q.55 uhps nh xbZ Lih'kht esa fdles dsUnzh; ijek.kq ds
lkis{k lcls cM+k dks.k gksrk gS -
(1) −
3
I (2) +
I (3) −
NO (4) H2O
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3
Q.56 LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 rFkk MgCl2 esa ls fdles Øe'k%
vf/kdre rFkk U;wure vk;fud xq.k gS -
(1) LiCl, RbCl (2) RbCl, BeCl2
(3) RbCl, MgCl2 (4) MgCl2, BeCl2
Q.57 fuEufyf[kr fdl vfHkfØ;k esa ty] vkWDlhdjd dh
rjg dk;Z djrk gS ?
(1) 3F2 + 3H2O → 6HF + O3
(2) C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2(g)
(3) Ca3P2 + 6H2O → 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3
(4) 2Cl2 + 2H2O → 4HCl + O2
2

Q.58 Which of the following statement is not true for
alkali metal ?
(1) All alkali metals dissolves in liquid NH3 and
give blue solution
(2) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent
(3) Na2CO3 is stable to heat
(4) Lithium has minimum tendency to form
complexes
Q.59 Which of the following pairs of substances gives
same gaseous product on reaction with water ?
(1) Na and Na2O2 (2) Ca and CaH2
(3) Ca and CaO (4) Ba and BaO2
Q.60 Which of the following statements is not correct –
(1) The stability of + 1 oxidation states increases
in the order Al < Ga < Ln < Tl
(2) Corrundum is Al2O3
(3) All the Al – Cl bonds in Al2Cl6 have same
bond length
(4) Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in character.
Q.61 The number of P—P bonds and oxidation state of
phosphorus
respectively -
in hypophosphoric acid are
(1) 0, + 3 (2) 0, +5 (3) 1, +5 (4) 1, +4
Q.62 Halogens are coloured because -
(1) Their atoms have high electronegativity
(2) Their atoms absorb energy causing excitation
of outer electrons to higher energy levels.
(3) Some wavelength of visible light are
absorbed by their molecules causing
excitation of outer electrons to higher energy
levels
(4) The interparticle forces between their
molecules are very weak
Q.58 fuEufyf[kr dkSulk dFku {kkjh; /kkrqvksa ds fy, lR;
ugha gS ?
(1) lHkh {kkjh; /kkrq;sa nzo NH3 esa foys; gksrh gS rFkk
uhyk foy;u nsrh gS
(2) yhfFk;e izcyre vipk;d gSA
(3) Na2CO3 rki ds izfr LFkkbZ gksrk gS
(4) yhfFk;e dh ladqy fuekZ.k dh izo`fr U;wure gksrh
gS
Q.59 fuEufyf[kr dkSuls inkFkksZa ds ;qXe dh] ty ds lkFk
vfHkfØ;k djkus ij leku xSlh; mRikn izkIr gksxsa ?
(1) Na rFkk Na2O2 (2) Ca rFkk CaH2
(3) Ca rFkk CaO (4) Ba rFkk BaO2
Q.60 fuEufyf[kr dkSulk dFku lgh ugh gS -
(1) Al < Ga < Ln < Tl Øe esa +1 vkWDlhdj.k
voLFkkvksa dk LFkkf;Ro c

Q.63 Copper is extracted from copper pyrites ore by
heating in a blast furnace. The method is based
on the principle that -
(1) Copper has more affinity for oxygen than
sulphur
(2) Iron has less affinity for oxygen than
sulphur
(3) Sulphur has less affinity for oxygen
(4) Copper has less affinity for oxygen than
sulphur
Q.64 Chromic acid reacts with hydrogen chloride to
form -
(1) Cr2O3 (2) CrO5
(3) −
HCrO (4) CrO2Cl2
4
Q.65 When AgNO3 is added to a solution of
Co(NH3)5Cl3, the precipitate of AgCl shows two
ionisable chloride ions. This means -
(1) Two chlorine atoms satisfy primary valency
and one secondary valency
(2) One chlorine atom satisfies primary as well
as secondary valency
(3) Three
valency
chlorine atoms satisfy primary
(4) Three chlorine atoms satisfy secondary
valency
Q.66 Which is wrong about the compound ?
K[Pt(η 2 – C2H4)Cl3]
(1) It is called Zeises salt
(2) It is π bonded complex
(3) Oxidation number of Pt is +4
(4) Four ligands surround the platinum atom
Q.67 Which among the following is biodegradable
pollutant -
(1) Polythene
(2) Asbestos
(3) Sewage waste
(4) mercury
Q.63 okR;k Hkêh esa dkWij ikbjkbVht v;Ld ls dkWij
¼rk¡cka½ dks xeZ djds fu"dkf"kZr fd;k tkrk gSA ;g
fof/k bl fl)kUr ij vk/kkfjr gS fd -
(1) vkWDlhtu ds fy, dkWij dh ca/kqrk lYQj ls
vf/kd gksrh gS
(2) vkWDlhtu ds fy, vk;ju ¼ykSgk½ dh ca/kqrk
lYQj ls de gksrh gS
(3) vkWDlhtu ds fy, lYQj dh ca/kqrk de gksrh
gS
(4) vkWDlhtu ds fy, dkWij dh ca/kqrk lYQj ls
de gksrh gS
Q.64 Øksfed vEy] gkbMªkstu DyksjkbM ls fØ;k dj
cukrk gS -
(1) Cr2O3 (2) CrO5
(4) CrO2Cl2
(3) −
HCrO 4
Q.65 tc AgNO3 dks Co(NH3)5Cl3 ds ,d foy;u esa
feyk;k tkrk gS rks AgCl dk vo{ksi.k nks
vk;uhdkjh DyksjkbM vk;uksa dks n'kkZrk gSA bldk
vFkZ gS -
(1) nks Dyksjhu ijek.kq izkFkfed la;kstdrk rFkk
,d f}rh;d la;kstdrk dks larq"V djrs gSa
(2) ,d Dyksjhu ijek.kq izkFkfed rFkk f}rh;d
la;kstdrk dks larq"V djrk gS
(3) rhu Dyksjhu ijek.kq izkFkfed la;kstdrk dks
larq"V djrs gSa
(4) rhu Dyksjhu ijek.kq f}rh;d la;kstdrk dks
larq"V djrs gSa
Q.66 ;kSfxd ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk xyr gS ?
K[Pt(η 2 – C2H4)Cl3]
(1) ;g ftll (Zesis) yo.k dgykrk gS
(2) ;g π ca/k ladqy gS
(3) Pt dh vkWDlhdj.k la[;k +4 gS
(4) pkj fyxS.M IysfVue /kkrq dks ?ksjs jgrs gSa
Q.67 fuEu esa ls dkSulk tSovi?kVuh; iznq"kd gS -
(1) ikWyhFkhu
(2) ,LcSLVksl
(3) okfgr (Sewage) vif'k"V
(4) ikjk
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Q.68 The IUPAC name of
O OH
CH3–C–CH2–CH–CHO is -
(1) 5-Oxo-4-hydroxy-2-pentanone
(2) 4-Hydroxy-5-al-2-pentanone
(3) 2-Hydroxy-4-oxopentanal
(4) 1-Al-4-oxo-2-pentanol
Q.69 The absolute configuration of the following
compound is -
CH3
H Cl
Cl H
C2H5
(1) 2S, 3R (2) 2S, 3S (3) 2R, 3S (4) 2R, 3R
Q.70 The reaction conditions leading to the best yield
of C2H5Cl are -
(1) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯ →
light . .V U
(2) C2H6 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Dark
room temperature
(3) C2H6 + Cl2(excess) ⎯ ⎯
light UV
⎯ light UV
(4) C2H6 + Cl2 ⎯⎯ ⎯ →
⎯ →
Q.71 When ethyne is treated with chlorine water, the
product obtained is -
(1) 1, 1, 2, 2-Tetrachloroethane
(2) Vinyl chloride
(3) Ethylidene dichloride
(4) Dichloroacetaldehyde
Q.72 A hydrocarbon ‘X ’ decolourises bromine water. It
reacts with one mole of H2 to give another
saturated hydrocarbon. ‘X ’ reacts with acidified
KMnO4 to give two moles of propanoic acid. ‘X ’
could be –
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH = CHCH3
(2) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3
(3) CH3 – CH – CH = CH – CH3
CH3
(4) CH3 –C == C –CH3
CH3 CH3
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Q.68
O OH
CH3–C–CH2–CH–CHO dk IUPAC uke gS -
(1) 5-vkWDlks-4-gkbMªksDlh-2-isUVsukWu
(2) 4-gkbMªkWDlh-5-,sy-2-isUVsukWu
(3) 2-gkbMªkWDlh-4-vkWDlks isUVsusy
(4) 1-,sy-4-vkWDlks-2-isUVsukWy
Q.69 fuEu ;kSfxd dk fujis{k (absolute) foU;kl gS -
CH3
H Cl
Cl H
C2H5
(1) 2S, 3R (2) 2S, 3S (3) 2R, 3S (4) 2R, 3R
Q.70 vfHkfØ;k dh dkSulh ifjfLFkfr C2H5Cl dh vf/kd
yfC/k ds fy, mi;qDr gS -
⎯ light . .V U
(1) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 ⎯⎯ ⎯ →
(2) C2H6 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Dark
room temperature
(3) C2H6 + Cl2(excess) ⎯ ⎯
light UV
⎯ light UV
(4) C2H6 + Cl2 ⎯⎯ ⎯ →
⎯ →
Q.71 tc ,Fkkbu dks Dyksjhu ty ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k
tkrk gS rks mRikn izkIr gksrk gS -
(1) 1, 1, 2, 2-VsVªk Dyksjks,Fksu
(2) foukby DyksjkbM
(3) ,fFkyhMhu MkbZDyksjkbM
(4) MkbZDyksjks ,lhVsfYMgkbM
Q.72 ,d gkbMªksdkcZu ‘X ’ czksehu ty dks jaxghu dj nsrk
gSA ;g gkbMªkstu ds ,d eksy ds lkFk fØ;k djds
vU; larÌr gkbMªksdkcZu nsrk gSA ‘X ’ vEyhÑr
KMnO4 ds lkFk fØ;k djds izksisuksbZd vEy ds nks
eksy nsrk gS ‘X ’ gks ldrk gS –
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH = CHCH3
(2) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3
(3) CH3 – CH – CH = CH – CH3
CH3
(4) CH3 –C == C –CH3
CH3 CH3

Q.73 The compound
C7H8 ⎯ ⎯
∆ / 3 2
Cl
⎯ →A⎯⎯⎯→
Fe Br 2 / B ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ →
HCl
The compound ‘C’ is -
(1) o-Bromotoluene
(2) m-Bromotoluene
(3) p-Bromotoluene
(4) 3-Bromo-2, 4, 6-Trichlorotoluene
Zn / C
Q.74 Iso-butyl chloride on heating with alcoholic
solution of KOH yields ..... as the major product -
(1) 1-Butene (2) 2-Methylpropene
(3) 2-Methyl-1-propanol (4) 2-Butene
Q.75 What is the major product obtained when phenol is
treated with chloroform and aqueous alkali -
(1)
OH
CHO
(2)
(3) OH CHO (4)
OH
OH
CHO
COOH
( i)
CH3MgBr
⎯
( ii)
HOH
Q.76 (CH3)2CHOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
oxidation
Mild X ⎯⎯⎯⎯→Y
Here ‘Y’ is -
(1) iso-Butyl alcohol
(2) tert-Butyl alcohol
(3) iso-Butylene
(4) sec-Butyl alcohol
Q.77 Cyclohexanone on reaction with sodium carbonate
solution to forms -
O
(1)
(3)
O
O
O
(2)
(4)
O
Q.73 ;kSfxd
C7H8 ⎯⎯⎯→
∆ / 3Cl2 A ⎯⎯⎯→ Fe Br 2 / B ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ →
HCl
;kSfxd ‘C’ gS -
(1) o-czkseksVkWyqbZu
(2) m-czkseksVkWyqbZu
(3) p-czkseksVkWyqbZu
(4) 3-czkseks-2, 4, 6-VªkbDyksjksVkWyqbZu
Zn / C
Q.74 vkblks C;qfVy DyksjkbM dks KOH ds ,YdksgkWfyd
foy;u ds lkFk xeZ djus ij eq[; mRikn ds :i esa
izkIr gksrk gS-
(1) 1-C;qVhu (2) 2-esfFky izksihu
(3) 2-esfFky-1-izksisukWy (4) 2-C;qVhu
Q.75 tc fQukWy dks DyksjksQkeZ rFkk tyh; {kkj ds lkFk
mipkfjr fd;k tkrk gS rks izkIr eq[; mRikn D;k gksxk -
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(1)
OH
CHO
(2)
(3) OH CHO (4)
OH
OH
CHO
COOH
Q.76 (CH3)2CHOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Mild X ⎯⎯⎯⎯→Y
oxidation
;g¡k ‘Y’ gS -
(1) vkblks-C;qVhy ,YdksgkWy
(2) r`rh;d-C;qVhy ,YdksgkWy
(3) vkblks-C;qVhyhu
(4) f}rh;d-C;qfVy ,YdksgkWy
( i)
CH3MgBr
⎯
( ii)
HOH
Q.77 lk;DyksgSDlsukWu lksfM;e dkcksZusV foy;u ds lkFk
vfHkfØ;k djds cukrk gS -
O
(1)
(3)
O
O
O
(2)
(4)
O

Q.78 Which of the following doesn't undergo
cannizzaro's reaction -
(1)
O
CHO
(2) CHO – CHO
(3) Ph–CO–CO–CH3 (4) (CH3)3C – CHO
Q.79 Which is correct alternate ?
CH3–CH2–COOH
(i) NaN3 + H2SO4
(ii) H2O
Br
Br2 / P
(1) CH3CH2NH2(A); CH3CHCOOH (B)
(2) CH3CH2CONH2 (A); CH3CH2COBr (B)
(3) CH3CH2NH2 (A); CH3CH2COBr (B)
(4) None is correct
O
Q.80 R – C – R'
H 2SO5
or
C6H
5CO3H
(A)
(B)
⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→ A. Product A in the
reaction and the name of the reaction are -
(1) R–CO–O–R', Baeyer- Villiger oxidation
(2) RCOOH, Baeyer oxidation
(3) RCOOH, R'OH, trans-esterification
(4) None is correct
O
Q.81 R – C – R' ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
KCN HCN / A ⎯⎯→ B
R
C
OH
R' CH2NH2
In the above sequence of reactions, A and B are
respectively -
CN
(1) A is RR'C and B is LiAlH4
OH
OH
(2) A is RR'C and B is NH3
COOH
CN
(3) A is RR'C and B is H3O
OH
+
(4) A is RR'CH2CN and B is NaOH
Q.78 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dSuhtkjks vfHkfØ;k dks lEiUu
ugh djrk -
(1)
(2) CHO – CHO
O CHO
(3) Ph–CO–CO–CH3 (4) (CH3)3C – CHO
Q.79 dkSulk vuqØe lgh gS ?
CH3–CH2–COOH
(i) NaN3 + H2SO4
(ii) H2O
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Br
Br2 / P
(1) CH3CH2NH2(A); CH3CHCOOH (B)
(2) CH3CH2CONH2 (A); CH3CH2COBr (B)
(3) CH3CH2NH2 (A); CH3CH2COBr (B)
(4) buesa dksbZ ugha
O
Q.80 R – C – R'
H 2SO5
or
C6H
5CO3H
(A)
(B)
⎯ ⎯⎯⎯→ A, vfHkfØ;k esa mRikn A
rFkk vfHkfØ;k dk uke gS -
(1) R–CO–O–R', cs;j- foYxsj vkWDlhdj.k
(2) RCOOH, cs;j vkWDlhdj.k
(3) RCOOH, R'OH, foi{k-,LVjhdj.k
(4) dksbZ lgh ugha gSA
O
KCN HCN / A ⎯⎯→ B
Q.81 R – C – R' ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
R OH
C
R' CH2NH2
vfHkfØ;k ds mi;qZDr vuqØe esa A rFkk B Øe'k% gS -
(1) A,
RR'C
(2) A,
RR'C
(3) A,
RR'C
CN
gS rFkk B, LiAlH4 gS
OH
OH
COOH
CN
OH
rFkk B, NH3 gS
rFkk B, H3O + gS
(4) A, RR'CH2CN gS rFkk B, NaOH gS

Q.82 Which of the following aromatic amine is least
basic ?
(1)
(3)
NH2
CH3
NH2
CF3
(2) NH3
(4)
NH2
OCH3
Q.83 Which of the following is a constituent of nylon ?
(1) Adipic acid (2) Styrene
(3) Teflon (4) None of these
Q.84 Among the following the weakest base is -
(1) C6H5CH2NH2 (2) C6H5CH2NHCH3
(3) O2NCH2NH2 (4) CH3NHCHO
Q.85 A 3.4 g sample of H2O2 solution containing x%
H2O2 by mass requires x mL of a KMnO4 solution
for complete oxidation under acidic condition. The
molarity of KMnO4 solution is -
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.2
Q.86 When −
BrO ion reacts with Br 3
– in acid medium,
Br2 is liberated. The equivalent weight of Br2 in
this reaction is -
5M 5M 3M 4M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 3 5 6
Q.87 The oxidation states of S-atoms in Caro';s and
Marshell's acids are -
(1) +6, +6 (2) +6, +4 (3) +6, –6 (4) +4, +6
Q.88 The total no. of neutrons present in 54 mL H2O(l)
are -
(1) 3NA (2) 30NA
(3) 24NA (4) None of these
Q.82 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,jksesfVd ,ehu lcls de {kkjh;
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gS?
(1)
(3)
NH2
CH3
NH2
CF3
(2) NH3
(4)
NH2
OCH3
Q.83 fuEu esa ls dkSulk uk;ykWu dk vo;oh (constituent)
gS ?
(1) ,fMfid vEy (2) LVkbjhu
(3) Vsyksu (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.84 fuEu esa ls nqcZyre {kkj gS -
(1) C6H5CH2NH2 (2) C6H5CH2NHCH3
(3) O2NCH2NH2 (4) CH3NHCHO
Q.85 nzO;eku }kjk H2O2 ds x% ;qDr H2O2 ds foy;u ds
3.4 g ,d uewus dks vEyh; ek/;e esa iw.kZr%
vkWDlhsdj.k ds fy, KMnO4 foy;u ds x mL dh
vko';drk gksrh gSA KMnO4 foy;u dh eksyjrk gS -
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.2
Q.86 tc −
BrO vk;u vEyh; ek/;e esa Br 3
– ds lkFk
fØ;k djrk gS rks Br2 fu"dkflr gksrh gS A bl
vfHkfØ;k esa Br2 dk rqY;kadh Hkkj gS -
5M
(1)
8
5M
(2)
3
3M 4M
(3) (4)
5 6
Q.87 dSjks rFkk ek'kZy vEyksa esa S-ijek.kqvksa dh
vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk;sa gS -
(1) +6, +6 (2) +6, +4 (3) +6, –6 (4) +4, +6
Q.88 54 mL H2O(l) esa mifLFkr dqy U;wVªkWuksa dh la[;k gS
-
(1) 3NA (2) 30NA
(3) 24NA (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

Q.89 1.44 gram of titanium (Ti) reacted with excess of
O2 and produce x gram of non-stoichiometric
compound Ti1.44O. The value of x is -
(1) 2 (2) 1.77
(3) 1.44 (4) None of these
Q.90 The increasing order for the values of e/m
(charge/mass) is -
(1) e, p, n, α (2) n, p, e, α
(3) n, p, α, e (4) n, α, p, e
Q.91 The root mean square velocity of hydrogen is 5
time than that of nitrogen. If T is the temperature
of the gas, then -
(1) T = T (2)
(3)
H 2
T < N2
N 2
T (4)
N2
T > H T
2 N2
T = H 7
2
T N2
Q.92 For the real gases reaction
2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g); ∆H = – 560 kJ.
In 10 litre rigid vessel at 500 K the initial pressure
is 70 bar and after the reaction it becomes 40 bar.
The change in internal energy is -
(1) – 557 kJ (2) – 530 kJ
(3) – 563 kJ (4) None of these
Q.93 For which of the following reaction is product
formation favoured by low pressure and low
temperature ?
(1) CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g); ∆Hº = 172.5 kJ
(2) CO2(g)+2H2(g) CH3OH(g);
∆Hº = –21.7 kJ
(3) 2O3(g) 3O2(g); ∆Hº = – 285 kJ
(4) H2(g) + F2(g) 2HF(g); ∆Hº = – 541kJ
Q.94 At 300 K the half-life of a sample of a gaseous
compound initially at 1 atm is 100 sec. When the
pressure is 0.5 atm the half-life is 50 sec. The
order of reaction is -
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
Q.89 VkbVsfu;e (Ti) ds 1.44 xzke O2 ds vkf/kD; ds lkFk
fØ;k djrs gSa rFkk vjllehdj.kferh ;kSfxd
Ti1.44O ds x xzke cukrs gSa A x dk eku gS -
(1) 2 (2) 1.77
(3) 1.44 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.90 e/m (vkos'k/nzO;eku) ds ekuksa ds fy, c H T
2 N2
T = H 7
2
T N2
Q.92 okLrfod xSl vfHkfØ;k ds fy,
2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g); ∆H = – 560 kJ.
10 yhVj Bksl ik=k esa 500 K ij izkjfEHkd nkc
70 bar rFkk vfHkfØ;k ds i'pkr~ ;g 40 bar gks
tkrk gSA vkUrfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu gS -
(1) – 557 kJ (2) – 530 kJ
(3) – 563 kJ (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.93 fuEu esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k ds fy, de nkc rFkk
de rki] mRikn fuekZ.k ds fy, vuqdwy gksrh gS ?
(1) CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g); ∆Hº = 172.5 kJ
(2) CO2(g)+2H2(g) CH3OH(g);
∆Hº = –21.7 kJ
(3) 2O3(g) 3O2(g); ∆Hº = – 285 kJ
(4) H2(g) + F2(g) 2HF(g); ∆Hº = – 541kJ
Q.94 300 K ij ,d xSlh; ;kSfxd ds ,d uewus dh
v)Zvk;q izkjEHk esa 1 atm ij 100 sec. gSA tc nkc
0.5 atm gks rks v)Z vk;q 50 sec gksrh gSA vfHkfØ;k
dh dksfV gS -
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

Q.95 Morhpine (C17H19NO3), which is used medically to
relieve pain as a base. What is its conjugate acid ?
(1) C17H18NO3 + (2) C17H18NO3
(3) C17H20NO3 – (4) C17H20NO3 +
Q.96 When a salt of weak acid and weak base is
dissolved in water at 25º, the pH of the resulting
solution will always -
(1) be 7
(2) be greater than 7
(3) be less than 7
(4) depend upon Ka and Kb values
Q.97 Molar conductivity of a solution of an electrolyte
AB3is 150 Scm 2 mol –1 .If it ionizes as
AB3 → A 3+ + 3B – ,
its equivalent conduvitiy will be-
(1) 150 (in Scm 2 eq – ) (2) 75 (in Scm 2 eq – )
(3) 50 (in Scm 2 eq –1 ) (4) 80 (in Scm 2 eq –1 )
Q.98 The vapour pressure of a given liquid will decrease
if -
(1) Surface area of liquid is decreased
(2) The volume of liquid in the container is
decreased
(3) The volume of the vapour phase is increased
(4) The temperature is decreased
Q.99 How many effective Na + and Cl – ions are present
respectively in a unit cell of NaCl solid (Rock salt
structure) if ions along line connecting opposite
face centers are absent ?
7
(1) 3, 3 (2) , 4
2
7 7 7
(3) , (4) 4,
2 2
2
Q.100 Select the properties which are for lyophilic
colloidal sols -
(1) Viscosity same as that of the medium
(2) Extensive hydration takes place
(3) surface tension same as that of the medium
(4) Particle cannot be detected even under
ultramicroscope
Q.95 eksfQZu (C17H19NO3), ftldk mi;ksx nnZ fuokjd
vkS"kf/k esa fd;k tkrk gS] ,d {kkj gSA bldk la;qXeh
vEy D;k gS ?
(1) C17H18NO3 + (2) C17H18NO3
(3) C17H20NO3 – (4) C17H20NO3 +
Q.96 tc nqcZy vEy rFkk nqcZy {kkj ds ,d yo.k dks
25ºC ij ty esa ?kksyk tkrk gS rks ifj.kkeh foy;u
dk pH ges'kk gksxk -
(1) 7
(2) 7 ls vf/kd
(3) 7 ls de
(4) Ka rFkk Kb ekuksa ij fuHkZj
Q.97 ,d oS|qr vi?kV~; AB3 ds ,d foy;u dh eksyj
pkydrk 150 Scm 2 mol –1 gSA ;fn ;g bl izdkj
vk;uhÑr gksrk gS
AB3 → A 3+ + 3B – ,
bldh rqY;kadh pkydrk gksxh -
(1) 150 (in Scm 2 eq – ) (2) 75 (in Scm 2 eq – )
(3) 50 (in Scm 2 eq –1 ) (4) 80 (in Scm 2 eq –1 )
Q.98 ,d fn;s x;s nzo dk ok"inkc ?kVsxk ;fn –
(1) nzo dk lrgh {ks=kQy esa deh dh tk;s
(2) ik=k esa nzo ds vk;ru esa deh dh tk;s
(3) ok"i voLFkk dk vk;ru c

Questions 101 to 198 are multiple choice questions. Each
question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Q.101 First cell of female gametophyte in angiosperm
plant is :
(1) Microspore mother cell
(2) Megaspore mother cell
(3) Microspore
(4) Megaspore
Q.102 Viviparous seed in halophytes posses :
(1) Dormant embryo
(2) Dormant endosperm
(3) Active embryo after maturation
(4) Parthenogenetic embryo
Q.103 In Agamospermy :
(1) Seed are not formed
(2) Seed formed without meiosis but with fertilization
(3) Seed formed without fertilization but with meiosis
(4) Seed formed without meiosis and fertilization
Q.104 Xenogamy is favoured by :
(1) Monocliny (2) Homogamy
(3) Dicliny (4) Cleistogamy
Q.105 Biodiversity is determined by :
(1) Number of individuals in an area
(2) Species richness
(3) Evenness
(4) Both (2) and (3)
Q.106 Genetic diversity is related to :
(1) Types of species with in a community
(2) Types of community in an area
(3) Gene based diversity with in a population
(4) Diversity of species within a genus
Q.107 The Mullarian mimicry is different from the Batesian
mimicry as in Mullarian mimicry the mimic posses :
(a) Predatory marks similar to model Monarch
butterfly
(b) Show colours concealing with surrounding
(c) Toxins in body similar to model
(d) Warning colouration like model Monarch butterfly
(1) a, b (2) a, c (3) c, d (4) b, c
BIOLOGY
iz'u 101 ls 198 rd cgqfodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds pkj
fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls dsoy ,d fodYi
lgh gSA
Q.101 vko`Ùkchth ikni esa eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn dh izFke
dksf'kdk gksrh gS :
(1) y?kqchtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk
(2) xq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk
(3) y?kqchtk.kq
(4) xq:chtk.kq
Q.102 yo.kksn~fHknksa ds lthoizt cht n'kkZrs gSa :
(1) izlqIr Hkwz.k
(2) izlqIr Hkwz.k iks"k
(3) ifjiDou ds Ik'pkr~ lfØ; Hkwz.k
(4) vfu"ksdtuuh; Hkwz.k
Q.103 v;qXedchtk.kqdrk esa :
(1) cht ugha curs gSa
(2) fu"kspu ;qDr v)Zlw=kh foHkktu jfgr cht curs gSa
(3) v)Zlw=kh foHkktu ;qDr fu"kspu jfgr cht curs gSa
(4) v)Zlw=kh foHkktu o fu"kspu jfgr cht curs gSa
Q.104 ijfUk"kspu dk leFkZu djrk gS :
(1) f}fyaxrk (2) ledkyiDork
(3) ,dfyaxrk (4) vuqUehY;rk ijkx.k
Q.105 fdlds }kjk tSo fofo/krk fu/kkZfjr dh tkrh gS :
(1) {ks=k eas lnL;ksa dh la[;k
(2) tkrh; vkf/kD;
(3) lekurk
(4) nksuksa (2) o (3)
Q.106 vkuqokaf'kd tSofofo/krk lEcfU/kr gS :
(1) leqnk; esa tkfr;ksa ds izdkj ds lkFk
(2) {ks=k esa leqnk;ksa ds izdkj ds lkFk
(3) ,d lef"V thu vk/kkfjr fofo/krk ls
(4) tkfr;ksa ds oa'k esa fofo/krk
Q.107 eqysfj;u fefeØh csVsfl;u fefeØh ls fHkUu gksrh gS]
D;ksafd eqysfj;u fefeØh esa fefed j[krs gSa :
(a) ijHk{kh fpUg] izfr:i eksukdZ frryh ds leku
(b) okrkoj.k ds vuq:i jax n'kkZrs gSa
(c) 'kjhj esa fo"k] izfr:i ds leku
(d) psrkouh jax n'kkZuk tSls izfr:i eksukdZ frryh
(1) a, b (2) a, c (3) c, d (4) b, c
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Q.108 Viviparous development of plants in halophytes is
adaptation against :
(a) Lack of oxygen content in mangrove
(b) Water potential gradient as, saline soil possess
very high water potential
(c) Water potential gradient as saline soil posses
very low water potential.
(d) Solute present in mongroove vegetation.
(1) a, b (2) b, d (3) a, c (4) a,c,d
Q.109 What is false about Conclusion of Robert paine's
experiment performed in eastern north American
intertidal shores :
(a) Piaster is dominant species while the Mytilus
Californianus is keystone species.
(b) Piaster is keystone species and Mytilus is
dominant species
(c) Mytilus regulates species abundance in rocky
intertidal shores and it's removal leads to
extinction of 10-15 invertebrate species
(d) Paister regulates species abundance in rocky
intertidal shores and it's removal leads to
extinction of 10-15 invertebrate species
(e) Piaster is predator so it can't allow the Mytilus
to got it's competitive edge in rocky intertidal
shore.
(1) a, c (2) b, d, e (3) c, d, e (4) a, c, d, e
Q.110 What is true about a population's dispersion :
(a) A population is always uniformly dispersed in
a habitat
(b) A population may be randomly distributed in a
community
(c) A population may be dispersed in clumps in
different geographical areas
(d) A population distribution is generally uniform
or random. Never clumped
(1) a, b (2) b, c, d (3) b, c (4) a, b, c
Q.111 Which of the following effects are density
dependent effects in a population :
(a) Rainfall
(b) Migration in locusts
(c) Epidemic disease
(d) Biotic potential
(e) Interspecific competition
(1) a, c, d, e (2) b, d, e
(3) b, c (4) c, d, e
Q.108 yo.kksn~fHkn ikniksa esas lthoizth fodkl fdlds fo:)
vuqdwyu gS :
(a) esUxzkso esa vkWDlhtu dh dehA
(b) ty foHko izo.krk ds] D;ksafd yo.kh; Hkwfe esa cgqr
vf/kd ty foHko gksrk gSA
(c) ty foHko izo.krk ds] D;kasfd yo.kh; Hkwfe esa ty
foHko cgqe de gksrk gSA
(d) esUxzkso ouLifr esa mifLFkr foyk;dA
(1) a, b (2) b, d (3) a, c (4) a,c,d
Q.109 vesfjdk ds Tokjh; leqnz rV esa fd;s x;s jkcZV ikbu ds
iz;ksx ds fu"d"kks± ds ckjs esa D;k vlR; gS :
(a) ik;LVj tkfr;k¡ izHkkoh tcfd ekbfVyl
dsyhQksfuZ,ul dqath&f'kyk tkfr;k¡ gSaA
(b) ik;LVj daqth&f'kyk tkfr;k¡ ,oa ekbfVyl izHkkoh
tkfr;k¡ gSaA
(c) ekbfVyl vUrj Tokjh; leqnz rVh; pV~Vku esa
iztkfr cgqrk;r dk fu;eu djrk gS ,oa buds gVus
ls 10-15 vd'ks:dh tkfr;k¡ foyqIr gks tkrh gSaA
(d) pV~Vkuh vUrjTokjh; {ks=k esa ik;LVj] iztkfr
cgqrk;r dk fu;eu djrk gS o blds gVkus ls 10-
15 vd'ks:dh tkfr;k¡ foyqIr gks tkrh gSaA
(e) ik;LVj ijHk{kh gS blfy, ;s ekbfVyl dks pV~Vkuh
vUrjTokjh; leqnz rV ij blds izfr;ksfxrk f'k[kj
ij vkus ugha nsrh gSA
(1) a, c (2) b, d, e (3) c, d, e (4) a, c, d, e
Q.110 lef"V forj.k ds lEcU/k esa D;k lgh gS :
(a) ,d lef"V vkokl esa lnSo ,dleku forfjr
jgrh gSA
(b) ,d lef"V leqnk; esa ;kn`fPNd :i ls QSyh
jgrh gSA
(c) ,d lef"V lewgksa ds :i esa fofHkUu HkkSxksfyd
Hkkxksa esa QSyh jgrh gSA
(d) ,d lef"V lkekU;r% cjkcj ;k ;kn`fPNd :i ls
QSyh jgrh gSA dHkh Hkh lewg esa ugha gksrhA
(1) a, b (2) b, c, d (3) b, c (4) a, b, c
Q.111 fuEu esa ls dkSuls izHkko le"Vh ds ?kuRo ij fuHkZj
izHkko gSa :
(a) o`f"V
(b) fVfM~M;ksa dk izokl
(c) cgqtuO;kid jksx
(d) tSfod foHko
(e) vUrjtkfr; izfrLi/kkZ
(1) a, c, d, e (2) b, d, e
(3) b, c (4) c, d, e
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Q.112 The net community productive become low in
climax communities than early successional
stage as :
(1) The number of producers is higher than
consumers
(2) Number of consumers is higher than producers
(3) More respiratory consumption due to high
number of heterotrophs
(4) Less gross photosynthesis due to unfavourable
environmental condition
Q.113 The biodiversity of the habitat over the total
landscope is called :
(1) α-diversity (2) Species diversity
(3) β-diversity (4) γ-diversity
Q.114 The 'Cohort' is :
(1) Group of individuals of same ecological age in
a population
(2) Group of individuals of reproductive and post
reproductive ages in a population
(3) Individual of a population
(4) Group of individuals of prereproductive and
post reproductive ages in a population
Q.115 In an ecosystem, the population of :
(1) Primary producer is larger than primary
consumers
(2) Secondary consumer is largest
(3) Primary consumers are more than primary
producers
(4) Primary consumers are least dependent upon
primary producers
Q.116 Niche overlap indicates :
(1) Active co-operation between two species
(2) Two different parasites on the same host
(3) Sharing of one or more resources between the
two species
(4) Mutualism between two species
Q.117 Given below is one of the types of ecological
pyramids. This type represents :
Q.112 izkjfEHkd vuqØe.k voLFkk dh rqyuk esa pje leqnk;
esa dqy leqnk; mRikndrk de gksrh gS] D;ksafd :
(1) miHkksäkvksa dh rqyuk esa mRikndksa dh la[;k
mPp gksrh gS
(2) mRikndksa dh rqyuk esa miHkksäkvksa dh la[;k
mPp gksrh gS
(3) fo"keiksf"k;ksa dh mPp la[;k ds dkj.k 'oluh;
miHkksx vf/kd gksrk gS
(4) izfrdwy i;kZoj.kh; voLFkkvksa ds dkj.k ldy
izdk'k la'ys"k.k de gksrk gS
Q.113 lEiw.kZ {ks=k ij vkokl dh tSo fofo/krk dgykrh
gS :
(1) α-fofo/krk (2) tkfr; fofo/krk
(3) β-fofo/krk (4) γ-fofo/krk
Q.114 "dksgkWVZ" gS :
(1) le"Vh esa leku ikfjfLFkfrdh; vk;q ds lnL;ksa
dk lewg
(2) le"Vh esa tuuh; ,oa i'p tuuh; vk;q ds
lnL;ksa dk lewg
(3) le"Vh ds lnL;
(4) le"Vh esa iwoZ tuuh; o i'p tuuh; vk;q ds
lnL;ksa ds lewg
Q.115 ikfjfLFkfrd rU=k dh le"Vh esa gksrs gSa :
(1) izkFkfed miHkksäkvksa dh rqyuk esa izkFkfed
mRiknd vf/kd gksrs gSa
(2) f}rh;d miHkksäk vf/kd gksrs gSa
(3) izkFkfed mRikndksa dh rqyuk esa izkFkfed
miHkksäk vf/kd gksrs gSa
(4) izkFkfed miHkksäk izkFkfed mRikndksa ij de ls
de fuHkZj gksrs gSa
Q.116 v/;kjksfir fudsr n'kkZrs gSa :
(1) nks tkfr;ksa ds e/; lfØ; lg&fØ;k
(2) leku ijiks"kh ij nks fofHkUu ijthoh
(3) nks tkfr;ksa ds e/; ,d ;k vf/kd L=kksrksa dh
lk>snkjh
(4) nks tkfr;ksa ds e/; lgksidkfjrk
Q.117 uhps fn;k x;k ,d ikfjfLFkfrd fijkfeM dk izdkj
gSA ;g izdkj n'kkZrk gS :
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(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(2) Pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
(3) Pyramid of biomass in a lake ecosystem
(4) Energy pyramid in a spring
Q.118 Which one is the correct food chain ?
(1) Eagle → Snake → Grasshopper → Grass → Frog
(2) Frog → Snake → Eagle → Grasshopper → Grass
(3) Grasshopper → Grass → Snake → Frog → Eagle
(4) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
Q.119 If you keep a C3 plant and a C4 plant of comparable
size in an air-tight glass container and provide them
with adequate sun light, you would expect the C4
plant to :
(1) Grow better than the C3 plant after one year in
that condition
(2) Grow slower than the C3 plant after one year in
that condition
(3) Be able to survive longer than the C3 plant, but
ultimately die
(4) Be able to survive not as long as the C3
plant
Q.120 In shade loving plants, their "Light Compensation
Point" is reached at low irradiance because :
(1) Leaves have more chlorophyll per quantasome
(2) These plants have greatly reduced respiration
rates
(3) Shade plant is capable of much lower rates of
photosynthesis than the Sun plants
(4) Shade loving plants synthesize pigments such
as anthocyanins to promote photosynthesis
Q.121 The graph represents an :
Rate of photosynthesis
400 500 600 700
Wavelength nm
(1) Absorption spectrum (2) Action spectrum
(3) Interference pattern (4) Spectroscope
(1) ?kkl LFky esa la[;k dk fijkfeM
(2) fjä LFky esa tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM
(3) >hy ikfjra=k esa tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM
(4) clUr esa ÅtkZ fijkfeM
Q.118 dkSulh ,d lgh [kk| Jà[kyk gS ?
(1) ckt → liZ → fVM~Mk → ?kkal → esa

Q.122 At the time of senescence :
(1) Auxin ↓, Gibberellin ↓, Cytokinin ↑
(2) Auxin ↑, Gibberellin ↑, Cytokinin ↓
(3) Auxin ↑, Cytokinin↑, Ethylene ↑
(4) Cytokinin ↓, ABA ↑, Ethylene ↑
Q.123 Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
answer :
List-I List-II
(A) Richmond Lang effect (i) NAA
(B) Bolting effect (ii) CH2=CH2
(C) Climacteric respiration (iii) GA3
(D) Lodging preventation (iv) Diphenyl urea
(1) (A) – i; (B) – ii; (C) – iii; (D) – iv
(2) (A) – iv; (B) – iii; (C) – i; (D) – ii
(3) (A) – iv; (B) – iii; (C) – ii; (D) – i
(4) (A) – iv; (B) – ii; (C) – iii; (D) – i
Q.124 Hydra reproduces by budding when :
(1) Plenty of food is available
(2) Environmental conditions are unfavourable
(3) Population of hydra in the pond increases
(4) It is alone
Q.125 The diagram summarises haemoglobin breakdown in
the liver :
Spent erythrocytes
ferritin haem haemoglobin globin
transferrin
iron bilirubin amino acids
deamination
ammonia
X Y Z
What are the destinations of X, Y and Z ?
Gall bladder Kidney Bone marrow
(1) X Y Z
(2) X Z Y
(3) Y X Z
(4) Y Z X
Q.122 th.kZrk ds nkSjku :
(1) Auxin ↓, Gibberellin ↓, Cytokinin ↑
(2) Auxin ↑, Gibberellin ↑, Cytokinin ↓
(3) Auxin ↑, Cytokinin↑, Ethylene ↑
(4) Cytokinin ↓, ABA ↑, Ethylene ↑
Q.123 lwph-I dk lqesy lwph-II ls dj] lgh mÙkj dk pquko
djsa :
lwph-I lwph-II
(A) fjpeaMysat izHkko (i) NAA
(B) cksfYVax izHkko (ii) CH2=CH2
(C) DyksbesDVsfjd 'olu (iii) GA3
(D) yksftax cpko (iv) Diphenyl urea
(1) (A) – i; (B) – ii; (C) – iii; (D) – iv
(2) (A) – iv; (B) – iii; (C) – i; (D) – ii
(3) (A) – iv; (B) – iii; (C) – ii; (D) – i
(4) (A) – iv; (B) – ii; (C) – iii; (D) – i
Q.124 gkbMªk esa eqdqyu }kjk iztuu gksrk gS] tc :
(1) Hkkstu i;kZIr ek=kk esa miyC/k gksrk gS
(2) okrkoj.k ifjfLFkfr;k¡ izfrdqy gksrh gS
(3) gkbMªk dh tula[;k rkykc eas c

Q.126 A young woman has puffy skin and a obesity with
bradycardia. Her plasma TSH concentration is low
but increase markedly when she is given TSRH.
She probably has :
(1) Hyperthyroidism due to a tumor
(2) Hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality
in the pituitary gland
(3) Hypotyroidism due to a primary abnormality in
the thyroid gland
(4) Hypothyroidism due to primary abnormality in
the hypothalamus
Q.127 The hormone secreted in as less as
30 nanogram/ml plasma concentration during foetal
stage which is responsible for descent of testis in
human male embryo is :
(1) Oestrogen (2) Androgen binding protein
(3) Testosterone (4) ICSH
Q.128 During muscle contraction :
(1) Size of I-band increase
(2) Size of H-zone remain same
(3) Size of A-band remain same
(4) All of the above
Q.129 Stout root around the base of main trunk of a tree
show prolific abnormal growth and is known as :
(1) Plank roots (2) Butteress root
(3) Prop root (4) (1) & (2) both
Q.130 Which of the following is true for phylloclades
only and not for cladodes :
(1) It is present in xerophytic plants
(2) It is stem of unlimited growth
(3) It is involved in photo synthesis
(4) (1) & (2) both
Q.131 Find out the correct pair :
(1) Leaf base : Epipodium
(2) Leaf lamina : Phyllopodium
(3) Petiole : Mesopodium
(4) Leaf axis : Hypopodium
Q.132 Sheath leaf base and ligule are characteristic
features of :
(1) Bannana leaf (2) Cycas leaf
(3) Fern leaf (4) Grass leaf
Q.126 ,d ;qok efgyk esa cszfMdkfMZ;k ;qDr lwth gqbZ rFkk
eksVh Ropk gSA mldh IykTek TSH lkUnzrk de gS
ijUrq tc mls TSRH fn;k tkrk gS rks fujarj o`f)
ns[kh xbZA mls lEHkor% gS :
(1) ,d V~;qej ds dkj.k gkbijFkkbjksfMTe
(2) ih;w"k xzafFk esa ,d izkFkfed vilkekU;rk ds
dkj.k gkbiksFkkbjkWfMTe gS
(3) FkkbjkWbM xzafFk esa ,d izkFkfed vilkekU;rk ds
dkj.k gkbiksFkkbjkWfMTe gS
(4) gkbiksFksysel esa ,d izkFkfed vilkekU;rk ds
dkj.k gkbiksFkkbjkWfMTe gS
Q.127 xHkhZ; fodkl ds nkSjku 30 uSuksxzke/feyh ls de
gkeksZu IykTek lkUnzrk esa L=kkfor gksrk gS tksfd ekuo
uj Hkzw.k esas o`"k.k ds mrkj ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk
gS :
(1) ,LVªkstu (2) ,UMªkstu cfU/kr izksVhu
(3) VsLVksLVsjkWu (4) ICSH
Q.128 is'kh ladqpu ds le; :
(1) I-iV~Vh dk vkdkj c

Q.133 Leaves and tender shoot is used in liver complaints,
asthma, cough and bleeding piles are of :
(1) Cheiranthus cheiri (2) Lapidium sativum
(3) Ephedra (4) Glycyrrhiza glabra
Q.134 Ovule of cycas and pinus are :
(1) Orthotrophous in both
(2) Orthotropus and anatropus respectively
(3) Anatropus and orthotropus respectively
(4) Anatrophous in both
Q.135 The leaves in selaginella have :
(1) Single unbranched nerve
(2) Single branched nerve
(3) Two unbranched nerve
(4) Two branched nerve
Q.136 When secondary growth (growth in thickness) is
initiated in a dicot root which of the following
happens first :
(1) Cambial initial between xylem and phloem
devide
(2) Pericycle cells outside the primary xylem
strand devide
(3) Parenchymatic cells between xylem and
phloem become meristematic
(4) Anticlinal division takes place so that the
cambium become circular
Q.137 Lobed parenchymatous cells are present in :
(1) Mesophyll tissue of leaves
(2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Leaf epidermis
Q.138 Ground tissue system is derived from :
(1) Periblem
(2) Plerome
(3) Partially from periblem and plerome
(4) Dermatogen
Q.139 Presence of only secondary medullary rays
indicates that :
(1) Structure is dicot stem
(2) Structure is monocot stem
(3) Structure is dicot root
(4) Structure is gymnosperm roots
Q.133 fdldh ifÙk;ksa o izrkuh izjksg dk mi;ksx ;d`r dh
leL;kvksa] vLFkek] [kk¡lh ,oa coklhj esa gksrk gS :
(1) dsjsUFkl dsjh (2) ysihfM;e lsVkboe
(3) bQsMªk (4) Xykblhjkbtk Xysczk
Q.134 lk;dl o ikbul ds chtk.M gksrs gSa :
(1) nksuksa esa _tq
(2) Øe'k% _tq o izrhi
(3) Øe'k% izrhi o _tq
(4) nksuksa esa izrhi
Q.135 lsysftusyk esa ifÙk;k¡ gksrh gSa :
(1) ,dy v'kkf[kr f'kjk;qä
(2) ,dy 'kkf[kr f'kjk;qä
(3) f}&v'kkf[kr f'kjk;qä
(4) f}&'kkf[kr f'kjk;qä
Q.136 f}chti=kh ewy esa eksVkbZ esa o`f) izkjEHk gksrh gS rks
fuEu esa ls loZizFke D;k ?kfVr gksrk gS :
(1) tkbye o yks,e ds e/; ,/kk esa foHkktu izkjEHk
gksrk gS
(2) izkFkfed tkbye ds ckgj ifjjEHkh; dksf'kdkvksa
esa foHkktu izkjEHk gksrk gS
(3) tkbye o yks,e ds e/; e`nqmÙkdh; dksf'kdk,sa
foHkT;ksÙkdh; gks tkrh gSa
(4) viur foHkktu gksrk gS rkfd ,/kk xksy gks
tk;s
Q.137 ikyhor e`nqÙkdh; dksf'kdk,sa mifLFkr gksrh gSa :
(1) ifÙk;ksa ds e/;ksÙkd esa
(2) tk;ye e`nqÙkd esa
(3) yks,e e`nqÙkd esa
(4) i.kZ ckápeZ esa
Q.138 Hkj.k ÅÙkd ra=k O;qRiUu gksrk gS :
(1) oYdqVtu ls
(2) jEHktu ls
(3) vkfa'kd oYdqVtu o jEHktu ls
(4) Ropktu ls
Q.139 dsoy f}rh;d eTtk jf'e;ksa dh mifLFkfr n'kkZrh
gSa fd ;g :
(1) lajpuk f}chti=kh LrEHk gS
(2) lajpuk ,dchti=kh LrEHk gS
(3) lajpuk f}chti=kh ewy gS
(4) lajpuk vuko`Ùkchth ewy gS
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Q.140 Half of the total CO2 fixation in photosynthesis on
the earth is fixed by :
(1) B.G.A (2) Algae
(3) Angiosperm (4) Oceanic plants
Q.141 Organism which produce granular deposition of
silica and these are primary producer of sea :
(1) B.G.A. (2) Algae
(3) Diatom (4) Dinoflagellates
Q.142 Polysiphonia shows the life cycle :
(1) Haplontic (2) Diplontic
(3) Diplo-haplontic (4) Haplo-diplontic
Q.143 Find out the correct match :
(A) Archebacteria – Ferrobacillus
(B) Sulphar bacteria – Chlorobium
(C) Iron bacteria – Rumen of animals
(D) Mycoplasma – Aerobic
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) Only B (4) B and D
Q.144 Sporophyte of broyophyte have a calyptra wall
which is :
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid
(3) Polyploid (4) None of the above
Q.145 Development of female gametophyte inside
megasporangium in gymnosperm is because of :
(1) Seed habit
(2) Endosporic development
(3) Exosporic development
(4) Unitegmic ovule
Q.146 Number of mitochondria in a each cell is different
because it depands on its :
(1) Size (2) Physiological activity
(3) Growth (4) Location of cell
Q.147 Ribosome in eukaryote & prokaryote are denoted
as 80s & 70s respectively 's' explains their :
(1) Size (2) Cell type
(3) Density (4) Size & density
Q.148 Stage of cell division where homologous
chromosomes separate while progeny chromatids
attached at centromere is :
(1) Metaphase (2) Metaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-I (4) Anaphase
Q.140 fdlds }kjk izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku dqy fLFkjhd`r
CO2 dk yxHkx vk/kk Hkkx fLFkj fd;k tkrk gS :
(1) B.G.A (2) 'kSoky
(3) vko`Ùkchth (4) leqUnzh ikni
Q.141 tho tks fd df.kdke; teko mRiUu djrs gSa ,oa ;s
leqUnz ds izkFkfed mRiknd gksrs gaS :
(1) B.G.A. (2) 'kSoky
(3) Mk;Ve (4) MkbuksysftysV
Q.142 ikWyhlkbQksfu;k] thou pØ n'kkZrk gS :
(1) vxqf.kr (2) f}xqf.kr
(3) f}xqf.kr&vxqf.kr (4) vxqf.kr&f}xqf.kr
Q.143 lgh feyku dks i`Fkd dhft, :
(A) vkdZsthok.kq – Qsjkscsflyl
(B) xU/kd thok.kq – Dyksjksfc;e
(C) ykSg thok.kq – tUrqvksa dk :esu
(D) ekbdksIykTek – ok;oh;
(1) dsoy A (2) A rFkk B
(3) dsoy B (4) B rFkk D
Q.144 czk;ksQkbV ds chtk.kqn~fHkn esa xksid fHkfÙk gksrh gS
tks fd gksrh gS :
(1) vxqf.kr (2) f}xqf.kr
(3) cgqxqf.kr (4) mijksä esa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.145 vuko`Ùkchth;ksa esa xq:chtk.kq/kkuh ds vUnj eknk
;qXedksn~fHkn dk fodkl gksrk gS] fdl dkj.k :
(1) cht LoHkko
(2) vUr chtk.kqd fodkl
(3) cká chtk.kqd fodkl
(4) ,d v/;koj.kh chtk.M
Q.146 izR;sd dksf'kdk esa ekbVksdkWfUMª;k dh la[;k fHkUu
gksrh gS] D;ksafd ;g fuHkZj gksrh gS] blds :
(1) vkdkj ij (2) dkf;Zdh; lfØ;rk ij
(3) o`f) ij (4) dksf'kdk dh fLFkfr ij
Q.147 ;wdsfj;ksV o izksdsfj;ksV esa jkbckslkse dks Øe'k% 80s o
70s ds :i esa fufnZ"V fd;k tkrk gS ;gk¡ 's' dks le>kvks
(1) vkdkj (2) dksf'kdk izdkj
(3) ?kuRo (4) vkdkj o ?kuRo
Q.148 dksf'kdk foHkktu dh voLFkk] tgk¡ letkr xq.klw=k
i`Fkd gksrs gSa] tcfd lUrrh v)Zxq.klw=k] xq.klw=k
fcUnq ij tqM+s jgrs gSa :
(1) e/;koLFkk (2) e/;koLFkk-I
(3) i'pkoLFkk-I (4) i'pkoLFkk
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Q.149 Mammalian skin is :
(1) Permeable to water
(2) Impermeable to water
(3) Impermeable to oil
(4) Impermeable to ointments
Q.150 Mitral valve in mammals guards the opening
between :
(1) Stomach and intestine
(2) Pulmonary vein and left auricle
(3) Right auricle and right ventricle
(4) Left auricle and left ventricle
Q.151 Inter-auricular septum in the embryonic stages has
a/an :
(1) Fossa ovalis
(2) Fenestra ovalis
(3) Fenestra rotunda
(4) Inter-auricular aperture
Q.152 Volume of urine is regulated by :
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(3) Aldosterone and ADH
(4) ADH alone
Q.153 The high threshold substances are :
(1) Glucose, sodium and protein
(2) Glucose and amino acids
(3) Urea, uric acid and protein
(4) Glucose, sodium and urea
Q.154 The correct order of the reproductive tract of a
male human being is :
(1) Rete testis, epididymis, vasa efferentia,
urethra
(2) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis,
urethra
(3) Vasa efferentia, epididymis, urethra, rete
testis
(4) Urethra, rete testis, epididymis, vasa
efferentia
Q.155 The structure formed after release of ova from
graafian follicles and secretory in nature, is :
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Corpus luteum
(3) Corpus albicans (4) Corpus stratum
Q.149 Lru/kkfj;ksa dh Ropk gS :
(1) ikuh ds izfr ikjxE;
(2) ikuh ds izfr vikjxE;
(3) rsy ds izfr vikjxE;
(4) eYgeksa ds izfr vikjxE;
Q.150 Lruh esa feVªy dikV ….. chp esa fNnz dh j{kk djrk
gS :
(1) vkek'k; ,oa vkU=k
(2) QqQqlh; f'kjk ,oa cka;k¡ vkfyUn
(3) nka;k¡ vkfyUn ,oa nka;k¡ fuy;
(4) cka;k¡ vkfyUn ,oa cka;k¡ fuy;
Q.151 Hkzw.kh; voLFkk esa bUVj&vkWjhdqyj lsIVe esa gksrk gS:
(1) Qkslk vksosfyl
(2) QsusLVªk vksosfyl
(3) QsusLVªk jkWVqUMk
(4) bUVj&vkWjhdqyj fNnz
Q.152 ew=k dk vk;ru fdlds }kjk fu;fer gksrk gS :
(1) ,YMksLVhjkWu
(2) ,YMksLVhjkWu, ADH rFkk VsLVksLVhjkWu
(3) ,YMksLVhjkWu rFkk ADH
(4) dsoy ADH
Q.153 mPp nsgyh (Threshold) inkFkZ gS :
(1) Xywdkst] lksfM;e rFkk izksVhu
(2) Xywdkst rFkk vehuks vEy
(3) ;wfj;k] ;wfjd vEy rFkk izksVhu
(4) Xywdkst] lksfM;e rFkk ;wfj;k
Q.154 uj euq"; esa tuu ufydk dk lgh Øe dkSulk gksrk
gS :
(1) jhV o`"k.k] ,ihfMMkbfel] okl bQjsfU'k;k]
;wjhFkzk
(2) jhV o`"k.k] okl bQjsfU'k;k] ,ihfMMkbfel]
;wfjFkzk
(3) okl bQjsfU'k;k] ,ihfMMkbfel] ;wfjFkzk] jhV
o`"k.k
(4) ;wfjFkzk] jhV o`"k.k] ,ihfMMkbfel] okl
bQjsfU'k;k
Q.155 xzsfQ;u iqfVdk ls v.M eqä gksus ds i'pkr~ fufeZr gksus
okyh L=kkoh izd`fr dh lajpuk dgykrh gS :
(1) dkiZl dSyksle (2) dkiZl Y;wVh;e
(3) dkiZl ,YchdsUl (4) dkiZl LVªsVe
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Q.156 Ovulation does not occur during pregnancy in the
human female because :
(1) The follicles are not influenced by the level
of progesterone in the blood
(2) The corpus luteum and later the placenta
produce large amounts of progesterone
(3) The corpus luteum generates as luteinising
hormone is no longer produced
(4) The embryo produces hormones which retard
the production of maternal follicle
stimulating hormones
Q.157 A shallow depression in the scapula which
receives the head of the upper arm bone is known
as the :
(1) Acetabulum
(2) Neural arch
(3) Glenoid cavity
(4) None of the above
Q.158 The eggs of insects are :
(1) Mesolecithal and centrolecithal
(2) Macrolecithal and centrolecithal
(3) Mesolecithal and telolecithal
(4) Macrolecithal and telolecithal
Q.159 The concept that organizer is essential for
embryonic development was given by or For the
'Theory of organiser', Nobel prize was given to :
(1) J. Axelrod (2) C. Landsteiner
(3) H. Spemann (4) I.P. Pavlov
Q.160 In the drones of honeybee, there is no reduction
in chromosomes number during spermatogenesis.
This indicates that :
(1) Drones are diploid
(2) The drones are produced due to loss of one
set of chromosomes from the fertilized egg
(3) The drones are brought up on an inferior diet
(4) The drones are produced parthenogenetically
Q.161 Silk is produced by :
(1) Larva and adult moth
(2) Larva
(3) Adult moth
(4) Cocoon
Q.156 fL=k;ksa esa xHkkZoLFkk ds nkSjku v.MksRlxZ ugha gksrk
D;ksafd :
(1) jä esa izkstsLVªkWu ds Lrj }kjk iqfVdk;sa izHkkfor
ugha gksrh
(2) dkilZ Y;wfV;e rFkk ckn esa IyslsUVk vf/kd
ek=kk esa izkstsLVªkWu mRiUu djrs gSa
(3) dkilZ Y;wfV;e Y;wfVukbftax gkekZsu mRiUu
djrk gS tks vf/kd le; rd mRiuu ugha gksrs
(4) Hkzw.k gkekZsu mRiuu djrk gS tks ekr`d iqfVdk
mn~nhiu gkekZsu ds mRiknu dks jksd nsrk gS
Q.157 Ldsiqyk esa ,d de xgjk xM~

Q.162 Bombay Duck is a :
(1) Variety of insect
(2) Variety of marine bird
(3) Variety of marine fish
(4) latest submarine with nuclear weapon
loading capacity
Q.163 Number of chromosomes in secondary oocyte
stage of humans is :
(1) 23 (2) 46 (3) 22 (4) 44
Q.164 Which of the following is a high quality
expensive variety of bird grown for meat :
(1) Surti (2) Turky
(3) Angoora (4) Husky
Q.165 A cross between carrier female for haemophilia
and normal male will produce :
(1) All haemophilic offspring
(2) 50% normal, 25% carrier, 25% haemophilic
(3) 50% normal, 50 haemophilic offspring
(4) All normal offspring
Q.166 A white eyed female Drosophilla is mated with
red eyed male. What will be the expected
percentage of red eyed fly in the progeny ?
(1) 0% (2) 25%
(3) 50% (4) 100%
Q.167 Number of autosomes found in the ovum of
human female are :
(1) 21 pairs (2) 22 pairs
(3) 23 pairs (4) None of these
Q.168 Which is the example of quantitative inheritance:
(1) A, B and O blood group
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Colour blindness
(4) Skin colour
Q.169 To which type of barriers under innate immunity
do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the
eyes belong ?
(1) Cytokine barriers
(2) Cellular barriers
(3) Physiological barriers
(4) Physical barriers
Q.162 ^^cksEcs Md** D;k gS :
(1) dhV dh fdLe
(2) leqnzh i{kh dh fdLe
(3) leqnzh eNyh dh fdLe
(4) ijek.kq {kerk ;qä ,d vk/kqfud iuMqCch
Q.163 ekuo ds f}rh;d fMEck.kqtuu dksf'kdk voLFkk esa
xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k gksrh gS :
(1) 23 (2) 46 (3) 22 (4) 44
Q.164 fuEu esa ls dkSu ek¡l ds mRiknu ds fy, i{kh dh
mPp xq.kkRed eagxh fodflr fdLe gS :
(1) lwjrh (2) VdhZ
(3) vaxwjk (4) gLdh
Q.165 gheksQhfy;k okgd efgyk o lkekU; iq:"k ds e/;
tuu djkus ij mRiUu gksaxs :
(1) lHkh gheksfQfyd larfr
(2) 50% lkekU;] 25% okgd, 25% gheksQhfyd
(3) 50% lkekU;] 50 gheksQhfyd larfr
(4) lHkh lkekU; larfr
Q.166 ,d lQsn us=k okyh eknk MªkslksfQyk dk lekxe
yky us=k okys uj ls djok;k tk;s] rks larfr esa yky
us=k okyh eD[kh dh lEHkkfor izfr'krrk D;k gksxh ?
(1) 0% (2) 25%
(3) 50% (4) 100%
Q.167 ekuo eknk ¼L=kh½ ds v.Mk.kq esa mifLFkr letkr
xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k gksrh gS :
(1) 21 tksM+h (2) 22 tksM+h
(3) 23 tksM+h (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.168 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ek=kkRed oa'kkxfr dk mnkgj.k gS:
(1) A, B o O jä lewg
(2) gheksQhfy;k
(3) o.kk±/krk
(4) Ropk jax
Q.169 tUetkr izfrj{kk ds vUrxZr eq[k dh ykj esa o us=k
ds vk¡lwvksa esa fdl izdkj dk izfrjks/k gksrk gS ?
(1) lkbVksdkbfuu izfrjks/k
(2) dksf'kdh; izfrjks/k
(3) dk;Zdh; izfrjks/k
(4) 'kkjhfjd izfrjks/k
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Q.170 A clone of activated T-lymphocytes can give
rise to all of the following except :
(1) Cytotoxic T-cells
(2) Helper T-cells
(3) Suppressor T-cells
(4) Memory cells
Q.171 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to :
(1) Tonsil (2) Thymus
(3) Thyroid (4) Thalamus
Q.172 Agglutination can trigger all of the following
reactions except :
(1) Ingestion by phagocytic macrophages
(2) Destruction by natural killer cells
(3) Formation of suppressor cells
(4) Complement system-mediated lysis
Q.173 Rejection of tissue or organ transplants is
brought about mainly by :
(1) Cytotoxic cells
(2) NK-cells
(3) Suppressor T-cells
(4) B-cells
Q.174 Low Ca ++ in the body fluid may be the cause of :
(1) Tetany (2) Anaemia
(3) Angina pectoris (4) Gout
Q.175 Which one of the following statements is correct
with respect to AIDS ?
(1) The HIV can be transmitted through eating
food together with an infected person
(2) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
infection
(3) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per
cent with proper care and nutrition
(4) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their
numbers
Q.176 The permissible use of the technique
amniocentesis is for :
(1) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(2) Artificial insemination
(3) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a
surrogate mother
(4) Detecting any genetic abnormality
Q.170 fdlds vfrfjä lfØ; T-yfldk.kq dk Dyksu] fuEu
lHkh dks mRiUu dj ldrk gS :
(1) dksf'kdk vkfo"k T-dksf'kdk
(2) lgk;d T-dksf'kdk
(3) laned T-dksf'kdk
(4) Le`fr dksf'kdk
Q.171 T-yfldk.kq esa 'T' v{kj iznf'kZr djrk gS :
(1) VkWfUly (2) Fkk;el
(3) Fkk;jkWbM (4) FkSysel
Q.172 fdlds vfrfjä fuEu lHkh lewgu@xqPNu dh
izfrfØ;k dj ldrs gSa :
(1) Hkf{kdkf.od o`gr~Hk{kdk.kq ds }kjk vUrZxzg.k
(2) izkd`frd ekjd dksf'kdkvksa ds }kjk fouk'k
(3) laned dksf'kdkvksa dk fuekZ.k
(4) y;uekf/;r iwjd rU=k
Q.173 Ård ;k vax izR;kjksi.k dh vLohd`fr eq[;r%
fdlds }kjk gksrh gS :
(1) dksf'kdk vkfo"k dksf'kdkvksa
(2) NK-dksf'kdkvksa
(3) laned T-dksf'kdkvksa
(4) B-dksf'kdkvksa
Q.174 'kjhj nzO; esa de Ca ++ fdldk dkj.k gks ldrk gS :
(1) fVVsuh (2) ,uhfe;k
(3) ,fUtuk isDVksfjl (4) xkmV
Q.175 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku AIDS ds fy, lgh gS ?
(1) laØfer O;fä ds lkFk Hkkstu [kkus ls HIV
lapfjr gks ldrk gS
(2) Mªx O;luh] HIV laØe.k ds fy, de lqxzkgh
gksrs gSa
(3) AIDS jksxh dk mfpr ns[kHkky o iks"k.k ds lkFk
'kr~izfr'kr mipkj dj ldrs gaS
(4) mRiknd HIV jsVªksfo"kk.kq] lgk;d T-yfldk.kqvksa
esa izos'k djrs gSa] ftlesa mudh la[;k esa deh
gksrh gS
Q.176 ,fEuvkslsUVsfll rduhd dk iz;ksx djuk mfpr gS :
(1) vtUes Hkzw.k dk fyax irk yxkus ds fy,
(2) d`f=ke lspu ds fy,
(3) lsjksxsV ekrk ds xHkkZ'k; esa Hkzw.k ds LFkkukUrj.k
ds fy,
(4) dbZ vkuqokaf'kd jksxksa dk irk yxkus ds fy,
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Q.177 Which of the following mutations to a gene is
least likely to affect an organism ?
(1) A single base change in the initiation codon
(2) A single base change near to the 5′ end of the
open reading frame
(3) A single base change near to the 3′ end of the
open reading frame
(4) A single base deletion near to the 5′ end of
the open reading frame
Q.178 In a diploid strain of peas, flower colour is
determined by two alleles segregating at a single
gene locus. The completely dominant allele, A,
gives rise to purple flowers, whilst the recessive
allele, a gives rise to white flowers. What colour
flowers will a plant have if its genotype is Aa ?
(1) All will be purple
(2) All will be white
(3) All will be pink
(4) Half purple, half white
Q.179 Consider three independently-assorting genes in
humans: A, B and C. What is the probability that
a mother of genotype AaBBCc and a father of
genotype AAbbCc will produce a child of
genotype AABbcc ?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/8 (4) 1/16
Q.180 In a certain species of rat, fur colour is controlled
by a single gene. There are two alleles for this
gene, the black fur allele and the white fur allele.
If these alleles were found to be incompletely
dominant with respect to one another, then this
species of rat would most likely have :
(1) Only black fur
(2) Only white fur
(3) Two possible genotypes for fur colour
(4) Three possible phenotypes for fur colour
Q.181 Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies
that the diploids. This is because :
(1) Haploids are reproductively more stable than
diploids
(2) Mutagenes penetrate in haploids more
effectively than is diploids
(3) Haploids are more abundant in nature than
diploids
(4) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive
are expressed in haploids
Q.177 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d thuh; mRifjorZu] tho esa
lcls de izHkko Mkyrk gS ?
(1) izkjfEHkd dksMksu esa ,d ,dy {kkj esa ifjorZu
(2) vksiu jhfMax Ýse ds 5′ fljs ds lehi ,d ,dy
{kkj esa ifjorZu
(3) vksiu jhfMax Ýse ds 3′ fljs ds lehi ,d ,dy
{kkj esa ifjorZu
(4) vksiu jhfMax Ýse ds 5′ fljs ds lehi ,d ,dy
{kkj dks gVkuk
Q.178 eVj ds f}xqf.kr izHksn esa] ,d ,dy thu yksdl ij
foPNsfnr nks ;qXefodfYi;ksa ds }kjk iq"i dk jax
fu/kkZfjr gksrk gSA iw.kZ izcy ;qXefodYih 'A' cSaxuh
iq"i o vizcy ;qXefodYih 'a' lQsn iq"i mRiUu djrs
gSaA ;fn ikS/ks dk thuizk:i Aa gks rks iq"i dk jax
D;k gksxk ?
(1) lHkh cSaxuh gksaxs
(2) lHkh lQsn gkaasxs
(3) lHkh xqykch gkaasxs
(4) vk/ks cSaxuh o vk/ks lQsn
Q.179 ekuo esa rhu LorU=k thu : A, B o C ;FkkØe
O;ofLFkr gSaA ekrk ds thuizk:i AaBBCc o firk ds
thuizk:i AAbbCc ls thuizk:i AABbcc okys
cPps mRiUu gksus dh lEHkkouk D;k gksxh ?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/8 (4) 1/16
Q.180 pwgs dh dqN tkfr;ksa esa] Qj dk jax ,d ,dy thu ds
}kjk fu;af=kr gksrk gSA bl thu ds fy, nks
;qXefodYih gksrs gSa] ,d dkyk Qj ;qXefodYih o nwljk
lQsn Qj ;qXefodYihA ;fn ;s ;qXefodYih ,d nwljs
ds fy, viw.kZ izHkkoh gks] rks bl tkfr ds pwgs esa gksxk :
(1) dsoy dkyk Qj
(2) dsoy lQsn Qj
(3) Qj ds jax gsrq nks lEHkkfor thuizk:i
(4) Qj ds jax gsrq rhu lEHkkfor thuizk:i
Q.181 mRifjorZu ds v/;;u ds fy, f}xqf.kr dh txg
vxqf.kr vf/kd mi;qä gksrs gSaA D;ksafd ;g :
(1) f}xqf.kr dh rqyuk esa vxqf.kr tufud :i ls
vR;f/kd LFkk;h gksrs gSa
(2) f}xqf.kr dh rqyuk esa mRifjorZtu vxqf.krksa dks
vf/kd izHkko ls Hksnrs gSa
(3) izd`fr esa f}xqf.krksa dh rqyuk esa vxqf.krksa dk
vkf/kD; gksrk gS
(4) izHkkoh ;k vizHkkoh vxqf.krksa esa lHkh mRifjorZu
iznf'kZr gksrs gSa
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Q.182 The elongation of the leading strand during DNA
synthesis :
(1) Progresses away from the replication fork
(2) Occurs in the 3′ → 5′ direction
(3) Produces Okazaki fragments
(4) Depends on the action of DNA polymerase
Q.183 Why does cytosine pair with guanine and not
adenine ?
(1) A C-A pair would be too wide to fit in the
double helix
(2) C and A are both polar
(3) A C-A pair would not reach across the double
helix
(4) The functional groups that form hydrogen
bonds are not complementary between C and A
Q.184 Of the following, the most reasonable inference from
the observation that defects in DNA repair enzymes
contribute to some forms of cancer is that :
(1) Cancer is generally inherited
(2) Uncorrected changes in DNA can cause
cancer
(3) Cancer cannot occur when DNA repair
enzymes work properly
(4) Mutations generally lead to cancer
Q.185 Which one of the following has an open circulatory
system ?
(1) Periplaneta (2) Octopus
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Metaphire
Q.186 Book lungs are the respiratory organs in :
(1) Protozoans (2) Cnidarians
(3) Arthropods (4) Amphibians
Q.187 Name the larva of starfish :
(1) Bipinnaria (2) Auricularia
(3) Pluteus (4) Parenchymula
Q.188 The echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates
had the following larva as common ancestral form :
(1) Dipleurula (2) Tornaria
(3) Bipinnaria (4) Trochophore
Q.189 Phaosome in earthworm is a :
(1) Pigment cell (2) Excretory product
(3) Respiratory pigment (4) Photoreceptor
Q.182 DNA la'ys"k.k ds le; yhfMax LVªsM dk nh?khZdj.k
gksrk gS :
(1) iquZjkorhZ QkWdZ ls nwj izxfr ls
(2) 3′ → 5′ fn'kk esa gksus ls
(3) vksdktkdh [k.Mksa ds mRiknu ls
(4) DNA ikWyhesjst dh fØ;k ij fuHkZj gksus ls
Q.183 lkbVkslhu] Xokfuu ds lkFk ;qXe cukrk gS vkSj
,Mhuhu ugha] D;ksa ?
(1) ,d C-A ;qXe] f}dq.Myu esa tqM+us ds fy, Hkh
cgqr cM+k gksxk
(2) C o A nksuksa /kqzoh; gSa
(3) ,d C-A ;qXe] f}dq.Myu dks ikj dj ughs
igqaprs
(4) gkbMªkstu cU/k cukus okyk fØ;kRed lewg
C o A ds e/; iwjd ugha gksrk
Q.184 fuEu fujh{k.k esa lcls vf/kd mi;qä ifj.kke] DNA
ejEer ,Utkbe esa =kqfV tks fd dqN izdkj ds dsalj
esa Hkkx ysrh gS :
(1) dsalj lkekU;r% oa'kkxr gksrs gaS
(2) DNA esa xyr ifjorZu] daslj dk dkj.k gS
(3) tc DNA ejEer ,Utkbe lgh dk;Z djrk gS
rks dsalj ugha gksxk
(4) mRifjorZu lkekU;r% dsalj mRiUu djrk gS
Q.185 fuEu esa ls dkSuls ,d esa [kqyk ifjlapj.k ra=k gksrk
gS ?
(1) isjhIysusVk (2) vkWDVksil
(3) fg:fMusfj;k (4) esVkfQjs
Q.186 fdlesa cqd yaXl 'olu vax gksrs gSa :
(1) izksVkstksvk (2) fuMsfj;u
(3) vkFkzksZiksMk (4) mHk;pj
Q.187 rkjkeNyh ds ykokZ dk uke :
(1) ckbfiUusfj;k (2) vkWfjdqysfj;k
(3) IyqfV;l (4) isjsudk;eqyk
Q.188 bdkbuksMeZ] gsehdkMZsV o dkMZsV ds fuEu ykokZ
lkekU; iwoZt Fks :
(1) MkbZIyq:yk (2) Vksjusfj;k
(3) ckbfiUusfj;k (4) VªksdksQksj
Q.189 dsapq, esa Qsvkslkse gSa :
(1) o.kZd dksf'kdk (2) mRlthZ mRikn
(3) 'olu o.kZd (4) izdk'kxzkgh
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Q.190 Laurer's canal is present in :
(1) Ascaris (2) Taenia
(3) Periplaneta (4) Fasciola
Q.191 When Amoeba responds to touch, it is called :
(1) Chemotaxis (2) Rheotaxis
(3) Thigmotaxis (4) Phototaxis
Q.192 The number of pseudopodia present in the
trophozoite of Enthamoeba histolytica is :
(1) One (2) Two (3) Many (4) None
Q.193 Areolar tissue joints :
(1) Bone with bones
(2) Fat body with muscles
(3) Bone with muscles
(4) Integument with muscles
Q.194 Ossification of tendon results in the formation
of :
(1) Sesamoid bone (2) Dermal bone
(3) Investing bone (4) Calcified cartilage
Q.195 During blood clotting, plateles release :
(1) Thrombokinase (2) Thrombin
(3) Fibrinogen (4) Prothrombin
Q.196 The cranial capacity of which one of the
following prehistoric humans was almost the
same as that of the modern man ?
(1) Peking man (2) Neanderthal man
(3) Java ape man (4) Australopithecus man
Q.197 The Devonian period is considered to be the age of :
(1) Fishes (2) Amphibians
(3) Reptiles (4) Mammals
Q.198 Egg laying mammals and marsupials are found in
Australia and no where else. This indicates :
(1) Continuous distribution
(2) Discontinuous distribution
(3) Natural barrier
(4) Climatic barrier
Q.199 First vertebrates appeared in :
(1) Permian (2) Silurian
(3) Ordovician (4) Cambrian
Q.200 Stem reptiles are :
(1) Ichthyosaurs (2) Pterosaurs
(3) Amphibians (4) Cotylosaurs
Q.190 ykWjj dh uky mifLFkr gksrh gS :
(1) ,Ldsfjl esa (2) Vhfu;k esa
(3) isjhIysusVk esa (4) QslhvkWyk esa
Q.191 tc vehck Li'khZ; izfrfØ;k djrk gS] ;g dgykrh gS :
(1) jlk;uqpyu (2) /kkjkuqpyu
(3) Li'kkZuqpyu (4) izdk'kuqpyu
Q.192 ,UVkvehck fgLVksykbfVdk ds VªksQkstksbV esa mifLFkr
dwViknksa dh la[;k gksrh gS :
(1) ,d (2) nks (3) vusd (4) dksbZ ugha
Q.193 ok;oh; ÅÙkd tksM+rs gSa :
(1) vfLFk;ksa dks vfLFk ls
(2) isf'k;ksa dks olkdk; ls
(3) isf'k;ksa dks vfLFk ls
(4) isf'k;ksa dks v/;koj.k ls
Q.194 fdlds fuekZ.k ds ifj.kkeLo:i d.Mjk dk vfLFkdj.k
gksrk gS :
(1) flLeksbM vfLFk (2) MeZy vfLFk
(3) bUosfLVax vfLFk (4) dSfYld`r mikfLFk
Q.195 jä FkDds ds nkSjku] fcEck.kq eqä djrs gSa :
(1) FkzksEcksdkbust (2) FkzksfEcu
(3) QkbZfzczukstu (4) izksFkzksfEcu
Q.196 fuEu esa ls dkSuls ,d izkSxsfrgkfld ekuo dh
dikyh; {kerk yxHkx vk/kqfud ekuo ds leku Fkh?
(1) iSfdax ekuo (2) fu,.MjFky ekuo
(3) tkok dfi ekuo (4) vkWLVªsyksfiFksdl ekuo
Q.197 fdldh vk;q ls fMoksfu;u dky dks ekuk tkrk gS :
(1) eRL; (2) mHk;pj
(3) ljhlì (4) Lru/kkjh
Q.198 v.Ms nsus okys Lru/kkjh o ek'kZqfi,Yl vkWLVªsfy;k esa
ik;s tkrs vkSj dgha ughaA ;g n'kkZrs gSa :
(1) lr~r forj.k (2) vlr~r forj.k
(3) izkd`frd vojks/k (4) tyok;qoh; vojks/k
Q.199 izFke d'ks:d mn~Hkfor gq, Fks :
(1) ijfe;u esa (2) flyqfj;u esa
(3) vksjMksfofl;u esa (4) dsEcfj;u esa
Q.200 oa'kh;@LrEHkh; ljhlì gS :
(1) bfDF;kslksjl (2) Vsjkslksjl
(3) mHk;pj (4) dksVhykslksjl
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Space for Rough Work (jQ dk;Z gsrq LFkku)
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SEAL
HkkSfrd foKku : Full Syllabus
jlk;u foKku : Full Syllabus
tho foKku : Full Syllabus
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fuEu funsZ'kksa dks /;kuiwoZd if