biostp.2

STUDENT EDITION
Contents and Features
• provides review questions for
each chapter in standardized
test format
• correlated to the National
Science Education Standards

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Contents
TO THE STUDENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . IV
NATIONAL SCIENCE EDUCATION STANDARDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . V
STUDENT ANSWER SHEET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . VI
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
CHAPTER 1 THE STUDY OF LIFE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1
CHAPTER 2 PRINCIPLES OF ECOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3
CHAPTER 3 COMMUNITIES, BIOMES, AND ECOSYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5
CHAPTER 4 POPULATION ECOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .7
CHAPTER 5 BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .9
CHAPTER 6 CHEMISTRY IN BIOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .11
CHAPTER 7 CELLULAR STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .13
CHAPTER 8 CELLULAR ENERGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .15
CHAPTER 9 CELLULAR REPRODUCTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .17
CHAPTER 10 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION AND GENETICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .19
CHAPTER 11 COMPLEX INHERITANCE AND HUMAN HEREDITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .21
CHAPTER 12 MOLECULAR GENETICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .23
CHAPTER 13 GENETICS AND BIOTECHNOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .25
CHAPTER 14 THE HISTORY OF LIFE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27
CHAPTER 15 EVOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .29
CHAPTER 16 PRIMATE EVOLUTION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .31
CHAPTER 17 ORGANIZING LIFE’S DIVERSITY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .33
CHAPTER 18 BACTERIA AND VIRUSES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .35
CHAPTER 19 PROTISTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .37
CHAPTER 20 FUNGI . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .39
CHAPTER 21 INTRODUCTION TO PLANTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .41
CHAPTER 22 PLANT STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .43
CHAPTER 23 REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .45
CHAPTER 24 INTRODUCTION TO ANIMALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .47
CHAPTER 25 WORMS AND MOLLUSKS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .49
CHAPTER 26 ARTHROPODS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .51
CHAPTER 27 ECHINODERMS AND INVERTEBRATE CHORDATES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .53
CHAPTER 28 FISHES AND AMPHIBIANS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55
CHAPTER 29 REPTILES AND BIRDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .57
CHAPTER 30 MAMMALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .59
CHAPTER 31 ANIMAL BEHAVIOR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .61
CHAPTER 32 INTEGUMENTARY, SKELETAL, AND MUSCULAR SYSTEMS. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63
CHAPTER 33 NERVOUS SYSTEM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .65
CHAPTER 34 CIRCULATORY, RESPIRATORY, AND EXCRETORY SYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . .67
CHAPTER 35 DIGESTIVE AND ENDOCRINE SYSTEMS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .69
CHAPTER 36 HUMAN REPRODUCTION AND DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .71
CHAPTER 37 IMMUNE SYSTEM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .73
iii

To the Student
Welcome to the Student Edition of Standardized Test Practice for Glencoe Biology. This book
provides two pages of multiple choice questions for each chapter of Glencoe Biology. The
questions will test your mastery of biology concepts in a standardized test practice format.
You may want to use the optional student answer sheet located in the front of the book for
your answers to the chapter questions.
Understanding science can sometimes be a challenge. Standardized Test Practice for
Glencoe Biology provides an opportunity for you to prepare for the state science assessment.
Each question has been correlated to the National Science Education Standards.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
iv

National Science Content Standards
Science Content Standards for Grades 9–12
The National Science Education Standards, published by the National Research Council
and representing the contributions of thousands of educators and scientists, offer a comprehensive
vision of a scientifically literate society. The standards not only describe what students
should know but also offer guidelines for biology teaching and assessment.
Correlations on each answer page in this booklet show the close alignment between the
content standards and the review questions. Correlations are designated according to the
numbering system in the table of science content standards shown below.
NATIONAL SCIENCE CONTENT STANDARDS
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Unifying Concepts and Processes
UCP.1 Systems, order, and organization
UCP.2 Evidence, models, and explanation
UCP.3 Change, constancy, and
measurement
UCP.4 Evolution and equilibrium
UCP.5 Form and function
Science as Inquiry
A.1 Abilities necessary to do scientific
inquiry
A.2 Understandings about scientific
inquiry
Physical Science
B.1 Structure of atoms
B.2 Structure and properties of matter
B.3 Chemical reactions
B.4 Motions and forces
B.5 Conservation of energy and increase
in disorder
B.6 Interactions of energy and matter
Life Science
C.1 The cell
C.2 Molecular basis of heredity
C.3 Biological evolution
C.4 Interdependence of organisms
C.5 Matter, energy, and organization in
living systems
C.6 Behavior of organisms
Earth and Space Sciences
D.1 Energy in the earth system
D.2 Geochemical cycles
D.3 Origin and evolution of the earth
system
D.4 Origin and evolution of the universe
Science and Technology
E.1 Abilities of technological design
E.2 Understandings about science and
technology
Science in Personal and Social
Perspectives
F.1 Personal and community health
F.2 Population growth
F.3 Natural resources
F.4 Environmental quality
F.5 Natural and human-induced hazards
F.6 Science and technology in local,
national, and global challenges
History and Nature of Science
G.1 Science as a human endeavor
G.2 Nature of scientific knowledge
G.3 Historical perspectives
NATIONAL SCIENCE EDUCATION STANDARDS
v

Name Date Class
Chapter
Directions: Fill in the bubbles completely for the answer choice you think is best.
1 A B C D
Student Answer Sheet
2 A B C D
3 A B C D
4 A B C D
5 A B C D
6 A B C D
7 A B C D
8 A B C D
9 A B C D
10 A B C D
11 A B C D
12 A B C D
13 A B C D
14 A B C D
15 A B C D
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
vi STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 1
Name Date Class
1
A group of organisms that can interbreed and
produce fertile offspring is a(n) .
A family
B species
C organization
D community
4
A biochemist is performing an experiment to
determine the effects of chemical X on the
growth of bacteria. Which test tube is the control
Test
Tube 1
Test
Tube 2
Test
Tube 3
Test
Tube 4
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
Inside the human body, heat is constantly
generated as a byproduct of chemical reactions.
Humans must be able to release heat to the
environment. This adaptation is necessary for
maintaining .
A energy
B organization
C homeostasis
D locomotion
3
Sugar dissolves in or mixes completely with
water. The solubility of a substance in water is
determined by measuring the maximum
amount of the substance that dissolves in a
given amount of water at a given temperature.
Hypothesis: The solubility of sugar in water
decreases as the temperature of the water
decreases. Identify the independent variable
and the dependent variable that you would use
to test this hypothesis.
A dependent variable—volume of water;
independent variable—water temperature
B dependent variable-water temperature;
independent variable-amount of sugar that
dissolves
C dependent variable-amount of sugar that
dissolves; independent variable-water
temperature
D dependent variable-amount of sugar that
dissolves; independent variable-mineral
content of the water
10mL 15mL 20mL
20mL 20mL 20mL 20mL
A Test tube 1
B Test tube 2
C Test tube 3
D Test tube 4
Sterile
beef broth
Chemical X
5
A scientist performs a series of experiments to
confirm an idea regarding cellular metabolism.
The results of the experiments support the
scientist’s initial idea, and after conferring
with colleagues, the scientist discovers that
evidence from many experiments has supported
the same idea. This idea could now be
considered a(n) .
A theory
B hypothesis
C observation
D control
6
Which procedure is a scientific method
A collecting data
B formulating a hypothesis
C observing
D All are scientific methods.
7
In an experiment, all variables are held
constant except for one. Then, experimental
results are compared to that one variable.
What type of experiment is this
A a variable experiment
B a multifactor experiment
C a controlled experiment
D a hypothetical experiment
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 1 1

Chapter 1
Name Date Class
8
Which unit is part of the International System
of International Units (SI)
A pound
B inch
C meter
D gallon
9
A scientist uses graphs, tables, and charts to
publish research results. What type of research
was he or she probably performing
A descriptive research
B quantitative research
C qualitative research
D controlled research
bk
Some cattle were given bovine growth
hormone (BGH) to see if they would produce
more meat. The animals were studied over a
period of two years. Animals in Group A were
injected with BGH. Animals in Group B were
not injected with BGH. The table shows the
results of the investigation. Which is a valid
conclusion from this data
Average Mass (kg)
Days Group A Group B
0 30 30
150 80 60
300 170 115
450 345 240
A BGH does not bring about an increase in mass.
B The more BGH injected into the animal, the
faster its mass will increase.
C Animals injected with the hormone will
increase in mass faster than those who are
not injected.
D Animals injected with BGH will not increase
mass as fast as animals that are not injected.
bl
You are planning to participate in a walkathon
for a local charity. Which temperature would
be most comfortable
A 0°C
B 20°C
C 40°C
D 60°C
bm
The results of an experiment show that as
temperature increases, enzyme activity
decreases. Which graph correctly displays
these findings
A
C
Enzyme activity
Temperature Effect
on Enzyme X
Enzyme activity
0 25 50 75 100
Temperature ( o C)
Temperature Effect
on Enzyme X
0 25 50 75 100
Temperature ( o C)
B
D
Enzyme activity
Temperature Effect
on Enzyme X
Enzyme activity
0 25 50 75 100
Temperature ( o C)
Temperature Effect
on Enzyme X
0 25 50 75 100
Temperature ( o C)
bn
What kind of question would an
environmental biologist ask
A How can a prosthetic hand be made
B How can a vaccine for HIV be developed
C How can the extinction of plants and
animals be prevented
D How can more crops be grown in poor soils
bo
What is the most precise volume of the liquid
shown in the figure below
A 19.4 mL
B 19.42 mL
C 19.57 mL
D 20.58 mL
20
19
bp
An experimental design included references to
prior experiments, materials and equipment, and
step-by-step procedures. What else should be
included before the experiment can be started
A a set of data
B a conclusion based on data
C safety precautions to be used
D inference based on results
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2 CHAPTER 1 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 2
Name Date Class
1
Ecology is the study of interactions between
.
A the animal groups in an area
B living and nonliving things in an area
C the nonliving things in an area
D the plants and animals in an area
Use the illustration below to answer question 6.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
The portion of Earth that supports the
existence of living things is the .
A ecosystem
B habitat
C biosphere
D niche
3
Which is a biotic factor that might affect the
life of a water-dwelling organism
A temperature of the water
B speed of water current
C pollutants in water
D bacterial population in water
4
The dense needles of Douglas fir trees can
prevent most light from reaching the forest
floor. This situation would have an immediate
effect on .
A producers
B carnivores
C herbivores
D decomposers
5
How does the amount of water on Earth
change as a result of the water cycle
A It always increases.
B It alternately increases and decreases.
C It remains constant.
D It always decreases.
6
The illustration above shows living and
nonliving factors that interact in a certain area.
Which term best describes the interactions
shown in the diagram
A biome
B food chain
C ecosystem
D population
7
During the carbon cycle, in what form are carbon
atoms generally returned to the atmosphere
A simple sugars
B carbon monoxide
C methane
D carbon dioxide
8
Which is not a pathway by which plants obtain
atmospheric nitrogen
A chemical fertilizers
B lightning
C photosynthesis
D symbiotic bacteria
9
A food web is represented in the diagram below.
What does Letter X mostly likely represent
H u m ans
Chickens
X
Sheep
A autotrophs
B decomposers
C heterotrophs
D parasites
Rabbits
Wolves
Hawks
Snakes
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 2 3

Chapter 2
Name Date Class
bk
In which type of ecological relationship do two
organisms benefit from living together
A commensalism
B competition
C mutualism
D parasitism
bl
In the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen is continuously
recycled. Which types of organisms break
down nitrogen compounds in dead organisms
and recycle them into the soil
A heterotrophs
B bacteria
C green plants
D herbivores
bm
According to the energy pyramid below, which
organisms are the primary consumers
Raccoons
Frogs
bn
Eating a sweet potato can provide energy for
human metabolic processes. What is the
original source of this energy
A protein molecules stored in the potato
B starch molecules absorbed by the potato
C vitamins and minerals from the soil
D light energy transformed by photosynthesis
bo
What is released at each level of a pyramid of
energy
A animals
B heat
C decomposers
D plants
bp
In an ecosystem, what happens to the atoms of
certain chemical elements, such as carbon,
oxygen, and nitrogen
A They move into and out of living systems.
B They are only found in abiotic factors.
C They move out of living systems and do not
return.
D They move into living systems and remain
there.
A algae
B mosquito larvae
C frogs
D raccoons
Mosquito larvae
Algae
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
4 CHAPTER 2 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 3
Name Date Class
1
Before plants can inhabit a rocky area, soil
must be present. A pioneer species must start
the process of soil formation for succession to
take place. Which would be a pioneer species in
a rocky area
A insect
B lichen
C weed
D fern
2
The diagram below shows layering in a lake.
Why would you expect to find greater species
diversity in summer in layer A than in layer B
5
Terrestrial biomes are classified based on the
types of organisms that develop within them.
The organisms found in a particular biome
have which factor in common
A biosphere
B ecosystem
C pioneer species
D climate and community
6
Which terrestrial biome houses the greatest
biodiversity
A taiga
B temperate forest
C tropical rain forest
D grassland
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
A
B
A Layer A is closer to shore.
B Layer B is warmer than layer A.
C Layer A has more autotrophs.
D Layer B has too many autotrophs.
3
After a community is disrupted by a large-scale
event, such as a forest fire, a new community is
established through which process.
A primary succession
B secondary succession
C soil formation
D climax succession
4
Within aquatic biomes, there are many
different environments where different types
of organisms thrive. In general, aquatic biomes
are divided into photic and aphotic zones.
Which determines whether a zone is photic or
aphotic
A distance from land
B climate
C water depth
D latitude
7
Which describes a community most accurately
A a single life-form found in a biome
B a group of life-forms belonging to the same
species
C a nonliving component of an ecosystem
D different populations interacting within the
same biome
8
Which statement would you NOT use to
describe succession
A It is gradual.
B It is orderly.
C It is predictable.
D It is random.
9
For many decades, certain areas in your state
have remained hardwood forests that are
mainly oak and hickory trees. Predict what
will most likely happen to these forested areas
in the next three decades.
A They will remain indefinitely and not be
affected by environmental influences.
B They will reach maturity and change in the
near future.
C They will be destroyed by environmental
changes.
D They will continue in their present forms
unless affected by environmental changes.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 3 5

Chapter 3
Name Date Class
bkThe first stage of succession of this forest was
probably the development of .
A lichens
B shrubs
C mosses
D trees
bl
Permafrost is characteristic of which biome
A tundra
B marine
C desert
D taiga
bn
Besides plants, what other factor distinguishes
one biome from another biome
A the number of plants in the biome
B the variety of animal species
C average temperatures and precipitation
D geographic location
bo
The number of species in an area is a measure
of .
A population
B biodiversity
C niche
D autotrophs
bp
Compared to a natural forest, a farmer’s wheat
field lacks .
A heterotrophs
B autotrophs
C significant biodiversity
D stored energy
bm
What event is most likely to initiate primary
succession
A forest fire
B heavy rain
C logging
D volcanic eruption
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
6 CHAPTER 3 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 4
Name Date Class
1
A new species of mouse is introduced into an
environment. These mice reproduce and the
population grows. As the population grows,
food resources diminish and predation by
hawks increases. Eventually, the number of
mice in the environment levels off so that the
rate of birth equals the rate of death. What is
this nearly constant number of organisms
called
A carrying capacity
B exponential growth
C linear growth
D competitive edge
4
Cattail plants in northeastern freshwater
swamps are replacing loosestrife plants. The
two species have similar environmental
requirements. What does this illustrate
A variations within a species
B dynamic equilibrium
C random recombination
D competition between species
5
What type of growth is represented by the
J-shaped curve shown below
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
Which limiting factor is density independent
A disease
B drought
C competition
D food supply
3
The graph below shows the estimated population
size of a certain species of lizard in a forested
region over several years.
Estimated lizard population
2000
1750
1500
1250
1000
750
500
250
0
1994 1996 1998 2000 2002 2004
Year
These estimates are based on the number of
lizard sightings each year. Which recent event
in the forest might explain the trend evident in
the graph
A Many trees were removed in 1994.
B The winter of 1996 was unusually warm.
C A new species of predatory bird was introduced
to the forest in 2000.
D The forest had a series of small fires in 2003.
Population Size
A sinusoidal
B linear
C exponential
D random
Time
6
Populations in an ecosystem will most likely
remain stable if which is true
A They have more predators than prey.
B They have a high level of biodiversity.
C Biotic factors decrease.
D Finite resources decrease.
7
What are forest fires, temperature fluctuations,
and floods all examples of
A biotic, density-dependent factors
B biotic, density-independent factors
C abiotic, density-dependent factors
D abiotic, density-independent factors
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 4 7

Chapter 4
Name Date Class
8
The phrase carrying capacity refers to .
A storing extra food for winter
B the number of organisms a habitat can
support
C transporting food to organisms in an area
D the maximum possible weight of an individual
organism
9
An experiment is conducted in which animals
from the same species are introduced into an
environment. By accident, too many of the
animals are introduced, exceeding the carrying
capacity of the environment. Which is most
likely
A The animal population will decrease.
B The animal population will increase.
C The animal population will experience
exponential growth.
D The animal population will experience linear
growth.
bk
Which pair of organisms would most likely
compete for food
A cow and chicken
B snake and hawk
C mushroom and shrub
D brown bear and salmon
bl
What does the line graph below show
Population Growth of Species
in an Ecosystem
Population Size
Carrying Capacity
Time
A The population increased at a constant rate.
B The population increased rapidly and then
leveled off.
C The population increased at an exponential rate.
D Ecosystems are able to support any number
of species.
bm
In analyzing the age structure of a population,
you discover that an extraordinarily high
percentage of the population is younger than
the age of reproductive maturity. What type of
growth will the population probably
experience in the future
A Growth rate will remain the same.
B slow, steady growth increase
C rapid growth
D negative growth
bn
What happens to a population at zero
population growth
A Birthrate equals the death rate.
B Births outpace deaths.
C Carrying capacity is exceeded.
D Deaths outpace births.
bo
Thousands of years ago, what factor kept the
human population level below the
environment’s carrying capacity
A technological advances
B better medicines
C zero population growth
D environmental conditions
bp
Mice are an example of an r-strategist
reproduction pattern because .
A they produce few individuals
B the expend great energy raising young
C they produce many offspring
D they maintain populations near the carrying
capacity
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
8 CHAPTER 4 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 5
Name Date Class
1
You are studying a chain of islands in the Pacific
Ocean. They are close together and have similar
weather patterns but some are larger than others.
The largest island will probably offer .
A the most biodiversity
B the least biodiversity
C the largest population of one organism
D one niche
5
A wooded area has been divided by a housing
development and is threatening the
biodiversity of the area. What term is used to
describe this threat from human activities
A habitat fragmentation
B acid precipitation
C habitat augmentation
D global warming
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
How is a species described when the number
of organisms of that species drops to a level so
low that extinction is possible
A endangered
B exploited
C degraded
D fragmented
3
Which best describes an effect of habitat
fragmentation
A increased biodiversity
B decreased biodiversity
C no effect on biodiversity
D less water and land pollution
4
What does the pyramid of biological
magnification shown below illustrate
Fish-eating
birds 25ppm
Large fish 2ppm
Small fish 0.5 ppm
Plankton 0.04 ppm
Water 0.000003 ppm
A Higher trophic carnivores eat very little food.
B Toxic substances increase as trophic levels
increase in a food chain.
C Acid precipitation destroys underwater habitats.
D The process of eutrophication destroys
underwater habitats.
6
Which do many scientists consider the number
one cause of extinction
A overexploitation
B fragmentation
C pollution
D habitat loss
7
Some organizations are buying sections of
forestland. Once purchased, forests within the
sections will not be cut down. What is the
primary goal of protecting these forest sections
A bring about extinction on a controlled plan
B prevent overpopulation of trees
C maintain biodiversity of the area
D expand farmland
8
Which has been a cause of extinctions of
populations on islands
A Native species often move back and forth
between islands.
B Island populations easily develop resistance
to introduced diseases.
C Introduced species are usually kept in check
by predators on the islands.
D Introduced species have no natural predators.
9
Japanese beetles feed on destructive aphids but
have no natural enemies in the United States.
In this instance, what does the importation of
organisms, where they have no natural
enemies, accomplish
A use of abiotic factors to reduce pests
B selection of species to mate with each other
to produce a new variety
C human attempts to protect extinct species
D human attempts to disrupt existing ecosystems
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 5 9

Chapter 5
Name Date Class
bk
What is hypothesized about extinction
A All extinctions have been mass extinctions.
B Background extinctions are a normal part of
stable ecosystems.
C The current extinction rate is estimated to be
twice the normal rate.
D In the future, less extinction will occur near
the equator than elsewhere.
bl
A fenced, grass-covered bridge has been built
over a highway that allows animals in one area
to move safely to the other area. What method
of wildlife conservation is being used
A ecosystem bridge
B environmental pathway
C habitat corridor
D environmental passageway
bm
A town had several homeowners that would
mow their grass during the summer, collect the
clippings, and dispose of them in a landfill. The
town would like to start a more ecologicallysound
method of grass clippings disposal.
Which suggestion makes the most ecological
sense
A Leave clippings to decompose in the lawn
and enrich the lawn.
B Spray clippings in the lawn with imported
microbes that feed on grass.
C Burn the clippings and add the ashes to the
soil.
D Throw the clippings into the local river as
food for organisms that live there.
bn
Waste-to-Energy (WTE) is a program that
sorts and burns organic waste material,
including garbage, to obtain energy. What
might be anticipated as an additional bonus
in communities utilizing WTE
A increased numbers of parks
B increased air pollution
C increased recycling of garbage
D decreased amount of auto emissions
bo
Which human activity has probably
contributed most to the acidification of lakes
in forests
A passing environmental protection laws
B establishing reforestation projects in lumber
areas
C burning fossil fuels that produce air pollution
D using pesticides for the control of insects that
feed on trees
bp
The variety of colors within a species, the
ability for members of a species to recover
from disease, or the ability of a species to find
new food sources are all examples of .
A background extinction
B species diversity
C sustainable use
D genetic diversity
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
10 CHAPTER 5 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 6
Name Date Class
1
Which does a polymer most closely resemble
A circle
B link in a chain
C chain
D intersection
2
Different organisms store glucose in various
forms. You discover a new species. Upon
chemical analysis, you find that it is comprised
of significant amounts of glycogen. To which
organism might this new species be related
A fern
B potato
C dog
D bacteria
3
Which is NOT true of lipids
A They are commonly called fats and oils.
B They are hydrophobic.
C They are good for energy storage.
D They are polar.
6
Which is true about enzymes
A They act on nonspecific, randomly chosen
substrates.
B After a reaction, they cannot be reused.
C They can speed up metabolic processes in
the body.
D They cannot change shape.
7
What type of compound is made up of atoms
held together by covalent bonds
A ion
B molecule
C isotope
D element
8
What makes a water molecule polar
Hydrogen atoms
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
4
Which cannot take place during a chemical
reaction
A formation of new atoms
B bonds breaking between atoms
C formation of new molecules
D bonds forming between atoms
5
A student drew and labeled the graph below
based on the results of an experiment. Why did
the student include the labels activation energy
and energy released
Activation
energy
Chemical Reaction Diagram
(Methane + O 2 )
(CO 2 + H 2 O)
Energy
released
A to explain why carbon dioxide and water
react to form methane and oxygen
B to show that the reaction needed heat to occur
C to explain why the experiment gave off heat
D to explain why methane and oxygen react to
form carbon dioxide and water
Oxygen atom
A Water has the ability to be frozen.
B The pH of pure water varies with the
temperature.
C A water molecule has a slight charge on
each end.
D A water molecule is made up of three atoms.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 6 11

Chapter 6
Name Date Class
9
The diagram below shows two amino acids.
What would biochemists call the result of
chaining many of these molecules together
H 2 N
OH
Alanine
O
A a carbohydrate
B a lipid
C a nucleic acid
D a protein
H 2 N
O
Glycine
OH
bk
The diagram below illustrates a biochemical
process that occurs in organisms. The
substance labeled catalyst also is known by
what other name
Sugar
Catalyst
+ Water
A antibody
B enzyme
C ion
D inorganic compound
Simple sugar
+
Catalyst
Simple sugar
bl
You are analyzing a compound in a laboratory.
You find that it is made up of carbon, hydrogen,
and oxygen in a ratio of two hydrogen atoms
for each carbon atom. How will you classify the
compound
A carbohydrate
B lipid
C protein
D nucleic acid
bm
A recipe says to mix 100 g of sugar, a pinch of
NaCl, and 1 g vanilla flavoring in 113 g of
butter. Which ingredient is the solvent
A sugar
B butter
C NaCl
D vanilla flavoring
bn
In the following equation, what are the products
of the reaction
C 6
H 12
O 6
+ 6O 2
→ 6CO 2
+ 6H 2
O
A C 6
H 12
O 6
and 6O 2
B 6O 2
and 6CO 2
C C 6
H 12
O 6
and 6H 2
O
D 6CO 2
and 6H 2
O
bo
You suspect that a chemical that you are testing
in the lab is strongly acidic. What might be its pH
A 2
B 7
C 11
D 14
bp
Which class of macromolecules store and
communicate genetic information
A carbohydrates
B lipids
C proteins
D nucleic acids
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
12 CHAPTER 6 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 7
Name Date Class
1
Which structure is part of the cell’s skeleton
A Golgi apparatus
B microfilaments
C plasma membrane
D mitochondria
5
Which letter in the diagram below indicates
the structure that is most closely associated
with protein building
A
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
An environmental toxin is discovered that
interferes with certain cellular functions. When
affected cells are examined, it is observed that
proteins that are normally found on the plasma
membrane are instead found in the cytoplasm.
Other proteins are also located improperly.
Which structure is most likely affected by the
toxin
A lysosomes
B mitochondria
C cell wall
D Golgi apparatus
3
Why do many scientists think that prokaryotes
are similar to the first organisms on Earth
A Prokaryote cells have a nucleus.
B The first organisms were all plantlike.
C Prokaryote cells have no nucleus.
D They have membrane-bound organelles.
4
Which statement would not be included in a
summary of the cell theory
A The cell is the basic unit of organization.
B All cells contain a nucleus that controls cell
division.
C All organisms are made up of at least one
cell.
D All cells come from other, preexisting cells.
A A
B B
C C
D D
6
How is the plasma membrane of a cell organized
A one layer of phospholipids, through which
proteins freely move
B one layer of phospholipids, which are laid
out end-to-end, with a hydrophobic tail
touching a hydrophilic head
C two layers of phospholipids, each of which
has its hydrophilic side turned inward
D two layers of phospholipids, with their polar
hydrophilic heads facing away from each
other
7
In which structure would you find a nucleus
A bacterial cell
B plant cell
C prokaryote
D virus
8
Homeostasis is the process of maintaining a
cell’s environment. This includes the regulation
of sodium ion (Na + ) concentration within the
cytoplasm. If too much Na + is inside a cell, how
can the concentration be changed
A More Na + ions will enter the cell through the
plasma membrane.
B Excess Na + ions will leave the cell via osmosis.
C Excess Na + ions will be transported out
through membrane protein channels.
D More Na + ions will be transported in
through membrane protein channels.
D
C
B
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 7 13

Chapter 7
Name Date Class
9
What characteristic of the plasma membrane
is illustrated in this drawing
Outside
the cell
bm
The diagram below represents a cell in water.
Explain why more water is moving out of the
cell than into the cell.
Oxygen Glucose
Wastes
Plasma
membrane
Water
Inside
the cell
A selective permeability
B phospholipid bilayer
C fluid mosaic construction
D impermeability to water
Wastes
Carbon
dioxide
bk
While viewing a slide of rapidly moving sperm
cells, a student concludes that these cells require
a large amount of energy to maintain their
activity. What organelles provide this needed
energy
A vacuoles
B ribosomes
C chloroplasts
D mitochondria
bl
On a laboratory exam, a student is asked to
determine if the cells under a microscope are
plant cells or animal cells. What might the
student look for
A chloroplasts and a cell wall
B ribosomes and vacuoles
C a nucleus and ribosomes
D a cell membrane and mitochondria
Water
Water
Water molecule
Solute
A The concentration of solute in the cell is
higher than it is outside the cell.
B The concentration of water outside the cell is
too great.
C The concentration of solute outside the cell
is higher than it is inside the cell.
D The concentration of water inside the cell is
greater than it is outside the cell.
bn
How can the cytoskeleton of a cell be
described
A framework and anchor for organelles
B selectively permeable series of membranes
C semifluid material
D transport system
bo
Which movement of substances through a cell
membrane against a concentration gradient
requires energy
A osmosis
B diffusion
C active transport
D facilitated diffusion
bp
Which cell organelle contains coded directions
for production of proteins
A endoplasmic reticulum
B lysosome
C Golgi apparatus
D nucleus
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
14 CHAPTER 7 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 8
Name Date Class
1
The process of photosynthesis converts which
type of energy to chemical energy
A heat
B light
C kinetic
D potential
5
In the experiment shown below, which process
occurring in the peas causes the drop of liquid
to move to the left
Drop of liquid
Rubber stopper
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
Two test tubes are filled with a solution of
bromthymol blue. A student exhales through a
straw into each tube, and the bromthymol blue
turns yellow. An aquatic green plant is placed
in each tube, and the tubes are corked. One
tube is placed in the dark, and the other tube is
placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution
in the tube in sunlight turns blue, while the one
in the dark remains yellow. Which statement
best explains why the solution in the tube
placed in sunlight returns to a blue color
A Oxygen was produced by photosynthesis.
B Oxygen was removed by respiration.
C Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.
D Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration.
Use the illustration below to answer questions 3 and 4.
1
2
3
Which reaction takes place in the thykaloid
discs (1) of the chloroplast
A carbon fixation
B light-dependent reaction
C light-independent reaction
D Calvin cycle
4
Which reaction takes place in the stroma (2) of
the chloroplast
A carbon fixation
B light-dependent reaction
C light-independent reaction
D photolysis
Tube containing
KOH solution
(CO absorber)
2
A cellular respiration
B digestion
C photosynthesis
D protein synthesis
Oxygen
Water-soaked peas
6
Which is a product of photosynthesis
A ATP
B glucose
C water
D carbon dioxide
7
The equation below represents a biological
process Where is this process completed
carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen
A mitochondria
B ribosomes
C cell membranes
D chloroplasts
8
Chlorophyll is the primary pigment in plant
chloroplasts. It absorbs all wavelengths of light
EXCEPT .
A green
B red
C yellow
D blue
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 8 15

Chapter 8
Name Date Class
9
The diagram below represents part of the process
of cellular respiration. Energy is released and
made available for metabolic activities at
which step
Step 1
P
ATP
ADP
A Step 1
B Step 2
C both Step 1 and Step 2
D neither Step 1 nor Step 2
Step 2
P
bk
What supplies the protons during the initial
process of in photosynthesis that drives ATP
synthesis
A oxygen
B carbon dioxide
C water
D sunlight
bl
Which step is the same in both forms of
fermentation, as well as in cellular respiration
Lactic Acid
Fermentation
glucose
glycolysis
(pyruvic acid)
lactic acid
+
2 ATP
Alcoholic
Fermentation
glucose
glycolysis
(pyruvic acid)
carbon dioxide
+
alcohol
+
2 ATP
Cellular
Respiration
glucose
glycolysis
(pyruvic acid)
carbon dioxide
+
water
+
36 ATP
A formation of carbon dioxide and alcohol
B formation of carbon dioxide and water
C breakdown of pyruvic acid
D breakdown of glucose
bm
Which process releases the greatest amount of
ATP
A alcoholic fermentation
B cellular respiration
C lactic-acid cycle
D photosynthesis
bn
ATP is a compound that is synthesized when
which occurs
A Chemical bonds between carbon atoms are
formed in photosynthesis.
B Energy stored in chemical bonds is released
during cellular respiration.
C Energy stored in nitrogen is released forming
amino acids.
D Digestive enzymes break amino acids into
smaller parts.
bo
In the material cycle shown below, which
processes are represented by letters A and B
H 2
O + O 2
+ C 6
H 12
O 6
B
Animals
Plants
A
CO 2
+ H 2
O
A A—excretion, B—respiration
B A—transpiration, B—excretion
C A—photosynthesis, B—transpiration
D A—respiration, B—photosynthesis
bp
What change could a student measure to
collect data about the rate of photosynthesis in
a certain type of algae when it is exposed to
different colors of light
A the temperature of the water surrounding
the algae
B the number of ribosomes in the green algae
cells
C the color of the algae
D the number of gas bubbles given off by the
algae
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
16 CHAPTER 8 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 9
Name Date Class
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2.
5
The chromosome content of a skin cell that is
about to form two new skin cells is represented
in the diagram below. Which diagram represents
the chromosomes that would be found in the
two new skin cells
1
What are the structures labeled A in the drawing
A chromatids
B centrioles
C spindle fibers
D centromeres
2
What stage of mitosis is shown in the drawing
above
A prophase
B metaphase
C anaphase
D telophase
A
B
C
and
and
and
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
Which description best fits the activity of a cell
during interphase
A The cell carries on metabolism.
B The cell differentiates to have a new function.
C The cell splits in two.
D The cell splits in two but with half the normal
number of chromosomes.
4
When carcinogens cause a failure in the
regulation of cell growth and development,
what condition might occur
A normal mitosis
B uncontrolled cell growth in the form of cancer
C cell plates form
D apoptosis
D
and
6
Mitosis, a stage in the cell cycle, is important
for what reason
A reduction of the cell’s chromosome number
B removal of diseased cells
C growth and repair of an organism
D division of the cytoplasm
7
Describe the actions of the cell’s chromosomes
during metaphase, a stage of mitosis.
A They duplicate.
B They move toward the poles of the cell.
C They condense to become chromatin.
D They line up in the middle of the cell.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 9 17

Chapter 9
Name Date Class
8
Which statement describes the number of
chromosomes in a newly formed cell after
mitosis
A They are double the number of the parent cell.
B They are half the number of the parent cell.
C They are equal to the number of the parent cell.
D They are double the number of two parent
cells.
9
During which stage of the cell cycle does the
cell duplicate its DNA
M
C
bm
During which phase of mitosis are sister
chromatids pulled to opposite ends of the cell
A prophase
B metaphase
C anaphase
D telophase
bn
The timing and rate at which a cell divides is
coordinated by which complexes
A cyclin/CDK combinations
B DNA replication
C nuclear division
D protein synthesis
G 2
G 1
A M stage
B G 1
stage
C S stage
D G 2
stage
S
bo
In what organism would you find cell division
being completed by cytokinesis, a process in
which a new plate forms between two daughter
nuclei
A animal
B bacterium
C plant
D protist
bk
Strawberries can reproduce by means of
runners, which are stems that grow
horizontally along the ground. At a point
where a runner touches the ground, a new
plant can develop. Why are the new plants
genetically identical to the parent plant
A All new cells came from mutated parent cells.
B The nuclei traveled to the new plant through
the runner.
C Other strawberry plants in the area fertilized
the runner.
D The new plant was produced asexually.
bl
If a cell with 36 chromosomes undergoes
mitosis, how many chromosomes will each
of the two new cells have
A 36 chromosomes
B 2 chromosomes
C 18 chromosomes
D 9 chromosomes
bp
Telophase is accompanied by the division of
cytoplasm between two daughter cells. What is
this process called
A prophase
B cytokinesis
C interphase
D synthesis phase
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
18 CHAPTER 9 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 10
Name Date Class
1
During which phase of meiosis do homologous
chromosomes align as tetrads in the middle of
the spindle
A prophase I
B prophase II
C metaphase I
D metaphase II
2
What term is used to describe pairs of
chromosomes having DNA segments, or genes,
for the same traits
A homologous
B analogous
C homozygous
D parallel
3
The diagram below represents the organization
of genetic information within a cell nucleus.
5
You are given a sample of unknown human
cells to examine. Analysis of their nuclei
reveals that each cell contains 23 chromosomes.
What types of cells might these be
A ova
B skin cells
C liver cells
D white blood cells
6
Which diagram represents the process of
sperm formation in an organism that has a
diploid chromosome number of eight
8
A
8
8
8
B
8
8
8
8
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Genes
Z
Nucleus
The circle labeled Z most likely represents
.
A amino acids
B chromosomes
C vacuoles
D nucleolus
4
The tall allele, T, is dominant to the short
allele, t, in Mendel’s pea plants. You examine a
pea plant that exhibits the tall phenotype.
What is its genotype
A Tt
B TT
C tt
D A and B are both possible.
8
2
6
C
1
1
3
3
7
During which stage of sex cell formation does
the number of chromosomes decrease from
diploid (2n) to haploid (n)
A prophase I
B anaphase I
C prophase II
D anaphase II
8
Which was concluded by Mendel as a result of
his genetic research
A Factors for different traits are inherited
together as a matched pair.
B Polyploidy can be beneficial in agriculture.
C Factors for different traits are inherited
independently of one another.
D Meiosis occurs in two steps, meiosis I and
meiosis II.
8
4
4
D
4
4
4
4
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 10 19

Chapter 10
Name Date Class
9
After performing a monohybrid cross, it is
important to analyze the results with a
Punnett square. What does each box in a
Punnett square represent
A possible phenotype
B possible genotype
C one individual
D two possible genotypes
bk
Which description best identifies
characteristics of asexual reproduction
A one parent, union of gametes, offspring
similar to but not genetically identical to the
parent
B one parent, no union of gametes, offspring
genetically identical to the parent
C two parent, union of gametes, offspring similar
to but not genetically identical to parents
D two parents, no union of gametes, offspring
genetically identical to the parents
bl
What process is taking place in the illustration
shown below
bn A researcher crosses the F 1
generation of
two snapdragon plants. According to this
information and the diagram below, what is
the ratio of their offspring (F 2
)
R
r
R
RR
Rr
r
Rr
rr
A 0 red; 4 pink; 0 white
B 1 red; 2 pink; 1 white
C 3 red; 0 pink; 1 white
D 4 red; 0 pink; 0 white
Genotype Phenotype
RR red
Rr pink
rr white
bo
What are the possible gamete types that can be
produced from a parent who is YyRr Meiosis
produces eggs and sperm that are alike.
A All YR
B All Yr
C YR, Tr, yR, and yr
D Half YR and half yr
A fertilization
B prophase II
C polyploidy
D crossing over
bm
Which statement best explains the significance
of meiosis in helping to maintain continuation
of a species
A Meiosis produces eggs and sperm that are alike.
B Meiosis provides for chromosomal variation
in the gametes produced by an organism.
C Equal numbers of eggs and sperm are
produced by meiosis.
D The gametes produced by meiosis ensure
the continuation of any particular species by
asexual reproduction.
bp
According to Mendel’s law of segregation, what
takes place during meiosis
A Pairs of alleles cross over on chromosomes,
exchanging one for the other.
B Pairs of alleles separate in meiosis, and each
gamete receives one allele of a pair.
C Part of an allele is separated, or broken off,
from its chromosome.
D One chromosome is suppressed, and the
other chromosome of the pair determines
the traits of the offspring.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
20 CHAPTER 10 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 11
Name Date Class
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
1
You and your colleagues are constructing a
pedigree for a boy with cystic fibrosis. The
individual’s younger brother has also been
diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. How would
these brothers be represented in a pedigree
A Both would be represented as completely
shaded circles.
B Both would be represented as completely
shaded squares.
C The older brother would be a shaded square,
while the younger brother would be a
half- shaded square.
D Both would be represented as unshaded squares.
2
Which disorder is treated by restricting milk in
the diet
A phenylketonuria
B cystic fibrosis
C galactosemia
D Tay-Sachs disease
3
A man carrying the allele for Huntington’s
disease marries a woman who is homozygous
recessive for the allele. What is the probability
that their offspring will develop Huntington’s
disease
A 25 percent
B 50 percent
C 75 percent
D 100 percent
4
Which diagram below illustrates fertilization
that would lead to development of a normal
human female
5
The gene for brown eyes (B) is dominant over the
gene for blue eyes (b). Two brown-eyed people
have a blue-eyed child. Which genotypes make
this possible
A The mother and father are both homozygous
brown eyed (BB).
B The mother is homozygous brown eyed (BB)
and the father is heterozygous brown-eyed (Bb).
C The mother is heterozygous brown-eyed (Bb),
and the father is homozygous brown-eyed (BB).
D The mother and the father are both heterozygous
brown-eyed (Bb).
6
During warm temperatures of summer, the
arctic fox produces enzymes that cause its fur
to become reddish brown. During the cold
temperatures of winter, these enzymes do not
function. As a result, the fox has a white coat
that blends into the snowy background. What
explains this change in color
A The genes of a fox are made of unstable DNA.
B Mutations can be caused by temperature
extremes.
C Random alteration of DNA can occur on certain
chromosomes.
D The expression of certain genes is affected by
temperature.
7
Which does NOT play a role in determining an
individual’s sex
A gametes
B chromosomes
C meiosis
D autosomes
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 11 21

Chapter 11
Name Date Class
8
What can you conclude about the trait followed
in the pedigree below
bm
A woman who is not colorblind is married to a
man who is not colorblind. They have, however,
a son who is red-green colorblind. What is the
mother’s genotype
A X B X B
B X B X b
C X b X b
D X B X
A It is incompletely dominant in every other
generation.
B It is coded for a sex-linked gene.
C It affects only females.
D The trait shows polygenic inheritance.
9
An individual has type AB blood. His father has
type A blood and his mother has type B blood.
What is the individual’s phenotype an example of
A simple recessive heredity
B simple dominant heredity
C incomplete dominance
D codominance
bk
Study the blood cells in the picture below.
Describe the genotype for the individual with
these types of cells.
Normal red
blood cell
A homozygous recessive
B heterozygous
C homozygous dominant
D codominant
Sickle cell
bl
Down syndrome is the result of an extra
chromosome 21 in a gamete. What caused
this to happen
A nondisjunction
B telomeres
C environment
D chromosome inactivation
bn
Many traits, such as stem length in plants and
skin color and height in humans, are controlled
by two or more genes. What is this called
A simple dominant inheritance
B monogenic inheritance
C polygenic inheritance
D codominance
bo
A micrograph of matched pairs of human
chromosomes can be used to confirm the
overall condition of homologous chromosomes
in an individual. What is this diagnostic tool
called
A karyotype
B telomere
C polygenic trait
D twin testing
bp
Traits controlled by genes on the X chromosome
are called sex-linked traits. In what individuals
are recessive sex-linked traits more commonly
expressed
A males because they have a Y chromosome
B females because they have two X chromosomes
C children who later outgrow conditions
brought on by the traits
D males because they have only one X
chromosome
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
22 CHAPTER 11 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 12
Name Date Class
1
A molecule of DNA is made up of .
A amino acids and proteins
B ATP and enzymes
C paired nucleotides
D receptor enzymes
2
If the structure of DNA were likened to a
ladder, what would make up the “supporting
structure” (not the “rungs”) of the ladder
A amino acids and sugars
B nucleotide bases, including thymine
C nucleotide bases, including uracil
D sugar-phosphate molecules
5
What process is shown in the illustration below
A commensalism
B deletion
C passive transport
D replication
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Use the illustration below to answer question 3.
G
C
G
C
A
T
T
A
A
T
C
C
G
3
The diagram above shows a portion of a DNA
molecule. The letters in the diagram represent
the four bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine
(G), and cytosine (C). Which sequence of bases
do the question marks represent
A C-A-C
B G-C-A
C G-A-C
D T-C-A
4
Which do DNA and RNA have in common
A Both are double stranded.
B Both contain ribose molecules.
C Both contain phosphate groups.
D Both contain uracil.
T
G
6
Proteins are chains of amino acids bonded
together. Which is the correct sequence for
making proteins
A Information in DNA is formed into protein
directly.
B Information in RNA uses thermal energy to
make protein.
C Information in RNA mutates into DNA and
then is made into protein.
D Information in DNA is transferred into RNA
and then made into protein.
7
What occurs during frameshift mutation
A Part of the chromosome breaks away, but
reattaches normally.
B Part of the chromosome breaks away, but
reattaches in inverse orientation.
C An extra chromosome is added, causing
mismatching of the chromosome pairs.
D There is a misreading of the base pairs
during translation.
8
What causes the two sides of the double helix
of DNA to stay joined together
A joining of base pairs
B joining of phosphate molecules
C joining of sugar molecules
D joining of RNA molecules
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 12 23

Chapter 12
Name Date Class
9
New inheritable characteristics would least
likely result from .
A mutations that occur in muscle and skin cells
B mutations that occur in male gametes
C mutations that occur in female gametes
D sorting and recombination of existing genes
during meiosis and fertilization
bn
In the illustration below, which molecules are
represented by boxes A and B Give answer in
order of A, then B.
Hereditary Information
is stored in
bk
What is the complimentary mRNA sequence to
the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A
A T-A-A-C-G-T
B U-A-A-C-G-T
C U-A-A-C-G-U
D T-A-A-G-C-U
can
Genes
are made of
A
controls production of
bl
What is the role of the structure shown here
during protein synthesis
AA
Replicate
A A-chromosomes, B-proteins
B A-DNA, B-proteins
C A-RNA, B-chromosomes
D A-chromosomes, B-proteins
B
U
A
C
A mRNA delivers codons from DNA in the
nucleus
B mRNA attaches to the ribosome
C rRNA forms ribosomes
D tRNA transports amino acids from the
cytoplasm to the ribosome for translation
bm
In most organisms, the start of translation is
signaled by an AUG codon. What is the first
amino acid in most proteins
A proline
B leucine
C isoleucine
D methionine
bo
Why is the presence of DNA important for the
cellular metabolic activities
A DNA directs the production of enzymes.
B DNA is a structural component of the cell
membranes.
C DNA directly increases the solubility of
nutrients.
D DNA is the major component of cytoplasm.
bp
Why can the deletion of a single nitrogen base
in DNA due to a mutation be harmful to an
organism
A Deletion causes chromosomes to join the
wrong chromosome.
B Nearly every amino acid in the protein will
change after the deletion of a base.
C Deletion causes a gamete to have an extra
chromosome.
D Such a mutation causes one chromosome to
break off or become fragile.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
24 CHAPTER 12 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 13
Name Date Class
1
In order to determine the genotype of a particular
trait of an organism, researchers can perform a
test cross between the unknown organism and
an organism that is known to be .
A homozygous dominant for the trait
B heterozygous for the trait
C homozygous recessive for the trait
D a clone
2
How can foreign pieces of DNA be transferred
into organisms
A by restriction enzymes
B by vectors
C by carrier enzymes
D by test crosses
3
The model below represents the outcome from
a step used in the recombinant DNA process.
What is the step called
5
Which process is a common practice that has
been used by farmers for hundreds of years to
develop new varieties of plants and animals
A cloning
B genetic engineering
C cutting DNA and removing segments
D selective breeding for desirable traits
6
The diagram below shows some key steps of a
biotechnological procedure. What
development does the letter X most likely
represent
Gene for
human
insulin
+
Cut
bacterial
DNA
Enzymes
Inserted into
bacterial cell
Cell
division
A human cells able to resist antibiotics
B human cells unable to synthesize antibodies
C bacterial cells able to synthesize human insulin
D bacterial cells unable to synthesize human
insulin
X
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
A DNA sequencing
B gel electrophoresis
C cloning genes
D splicing genes
4
Researchers inserted a gene for bioluminescence
into a variety of organisms, such as mosquito
larvae. What is this technology called
A gel electrophoresis
B polymerase chain reactions
C DNA sequencing
D genetic engineering
7
The nucleus is removed from a body cell of one
organism and is placed in an egg cell that has
had its nucleus removed. This process results
in the production of organisms that are
genetically alike. What is this process called
A fertilization
B adaptation
C cloning
D inbreeding
8
Restriction enzymes are used for what purpose
A to maintain homeostasis
B to transfer DNA fragments to plasmids
C to cleave DNA strands at specific nucleotide
sequences
D to inhibit enzyme reactions in cells
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 13 25

Chapter 13
Name Date Class
9
DNA was encapsulated in a virus like the one
shown below and supplied to a patient for the
purpose of replacing a defective gene. What is
this treatment called
bm
A DNA fragment has been cleaved by
restriction enzymes, as shown in the model
below. After this occurs, each single strand is
left with what feature
GATAT C
C TATAG
A sticky ends
B blunt ends
C spliced genes
D a complete genome
A gene therapy
B pharmacogenomics
C gene splicing
D replication
bk
One variety of strawberry is resistant to a
damaging fungus but produces small fruit.
Another strawberry variety produces large
fruit but is not resistant to the fungus. How
might the desirable qualities of the two
varieties be combined
A cloning
B asexual reproduction
C direct harvesting
D selective breeding
bl
A woman has a gene that causes a visual disorder.
To prevent the disorder from appearing in
future generations, where would the defective
gene have to be repaired
A nervous system
B reproductive cells
C eye
D uterus
bn
What are the small circular, double-stranded
DNA molecules in bacteria that can be used as
vectors
A clones
B plasmids
C chloroplasts
D transgenic organisms
bo
Why can a polymerase chain reaction be
compared to a biological copy machine
A It makes a single, perfect copy of a DNA
sequence.
B It identifies a DNA sequence.
C It is used to make millions of copies of a specific
DNA molecule.
D It delivers gene therapy to all the cells of the
body.
bp
Dolly is a sheep developed from an egg of her
mother that had its nucleus replaced by a
nucleus from a body cell of her mother. What
resulted from using this technique
A Dolly is no longer able to reproduce.
B Dolly is genetically identical to her mother.
C Dolly, or others like her, have a longer than
normal life span.
D Dolly is unable to mate.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
26 CHAPTER 13 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 14
Name Date Class
1
A scientist is using radiometric dating to
determine the ages of four rock samples in
order to determine the ages of fossils found
near the rocks. The ratios below compare the
amount of parent isotopes to the amount of
daughter isotopes. Which rock sample is the
oldest
Radiometric Dating
5
What did Francesco Redi’s experiments disprove
A law of superposition
B Cambrian explosion of life
C endosymbiont theory
D theory of spontaneous generation
6
What type of fossil forms when pore spaces of
the original hard parts of an animal are filled
in by minerals
Rock A
1:1
A Rock A
B Rock B
C Rock C
D Rock D
Rock B
1:4
Rock C
1:16
Rock D
1:32
Burial
Organic
material
decays
Mineral-rich
ground
water
seeps in
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
What is one advantage of radiometric dating
over relative dating
A The age of an isolated rock can be determined.
B Radiometric dating can be performed in the
field.
C Radiometric dating can be performed by
students.
D A Geiger counter can be used.
3
Evidence of past life in the form of fossils is
found in what form of rock
A sedimentary
B metamorphic
C igneous
D crushed metamorphic rock
4
On a field trip, a scientist finds a fossil of a
snub-nosed crocodile and wants to know its
age. What would you do to date the fossil
A Measure decay of radioactive isotopes in the
rock around the fossil.
B Count the annual rings of trees growing in
the area.
C Determine the age by comparing them to
fossils in other layers.
D Measure the depth at which the fossil is
found.
A trace fossil
B premineralized fossil
C cast fossil
D amber fossil
7
What provides an explanation for the presence
of mitochondria and chloroplasts in presentday
cells
A biogenesis
B endosymbiosis
C spontaneous generation
D superposition
8
What is represented in the geologic time scale
A fossil formation in sedimentary rock
B steps of endosymbiosis
C major geological and biological events in
Earth’s history
D current plant and animal groupings
9
What characteristics do scientists hypothesize
about the first forms of life
A They were prokaryotes that breathed oxygen.
B They were autotrophic and able to feed
themselves because they contained chlorophyll.
C They were prokaryotes linked with volcanic
environments.
D They were aerobic.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 14 27

Chapter 14
Name Date Class
bk
How is the illustration below interpreted by
many scientists
Aerobic Nucleus Eukaryote
prokaryotes
Aerobic prokaryotes
became mitochondria
Cyanobacteria
Mitochondria
Chloroplasts
Cyanobacteria became
chloroplasts
A Mitochondria and chloroplasts are parasites
in cells.
B Prokaryotes might have entered host cells as
prey or parasites.
C Eukaryotic cells evolved before prokaryotes.
D Mitochondria and chloroplasts look similar.
bl
Why does the presence of iridium support the
idea that a meteorite struck Earth, possibly
bringing about a mass extinction at the end
of the Mesozoic Era
A Records of the period show a cloudy atmosphere
for months at a time.
B Iridium is rare on Earth but common in
meteorites.
C Rocks show a 100 percent increase in iridium
at that time.
D There was an increase in species.
bm
During which time in geologic history is Earth
thought to have formed and life first appear
A Cenozoic Era
B Jurassic Period
C Cretaceous Period
D Precambrian
bn
What did Pasteur’s experiment with sterile
broth show
A Only living things can produce other living
things.
B Organic molecules could be produced from
gases.
C Meteorites brought the first organic molecules to
Earth.
D Organic reactions in deep-sea volcanic vents
preceded life’s emergence.
bo
What is known about mass extinctions
A They are common.
B They occur instantaneously.
C They wipe out all organisms.
D They occur every 26 to 30 million years.
bp
Fossils of a seed fern were found on several
different continents, each with a different
climate. What does this evidence support
A spontaneous generation
B endosymbiosis
C continental drift
D theories about the development of Earth’s
atmosphere
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
28 CHAPTER 14 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 15
Name Date Class
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
1
When Charles Darwin was developing his
theory of evolution, he considered variations
in a population important. However, he could
not explain how the variations occurred.
Which two processes could cause variations
A symbiosis and metamorphosis
B commensalism and mutualism
C crossing over and mutations
D phagocytosis and pinocytosis
2
The fact that at least one species of resistant
bacteria has developed for almost every
antibiotic is evidence for which condition
A The bacteria have adapted and could be
evolving into a different species.
B The bacteria have learned to mimic other
species.
C There is no variation in the bacteria population.
D The antibiotics are being made differently.
3
Why are the structures shown below considered
to be homologous
Whale
forelimb
Crocodile
forelimb
Bird wing
A They belong to organisms that evolved from
separate ancestors.
B They are the result of geographic isolation.
C They belong to organisms that probably
evolved from a common ancestor.
D They are the result of sympatric speciation.
4
Homologous structures might be the result of
a change in allele frequencies over successive
generations. Why have these structures probably
continued
A They were beneficial in a particular
environment.
B They were predestined in a species.
C They made a particular organism more
attractive to a mate.
D They were neutral, not harmful, mutations.
5
Under what conditions might populations of a
short type of sunflower be identified as a new
species
A They are able to breed with sunflowers from
the original population.
B They are unable to breed with the sunflowers
of the original population.
C They appear as a new color.
D They produce twice as many blooms as the
original sunflower population.
6
Who proposed that genetic change causes
species to change quickly and not gradually
A Charles Darwin
B Alfred Russell Wallace
C Thomas Malthus
D Stephen J. Gould
7
What unique characteristic would the beetles
shown below develop through biological
adaptation if, over a period of years, the bark
on the trees shown became spotted
Bark of tree
A The beetles would become spotted.
B The beetles would become plain.
C About half the beetles would become spotted
and half would not.
D There would be no change.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 15 29

Chapter 15
Name Date Class
8
According to the theory of natural selection,
why are some individuals more likely than
others to survive and reproduce
A They pass on to their offspring new characteristics
they acquired during their lifetimes.
B They are better adapted to exist in their
environment than others.
C They do not pass on to their offspring new
characteristics they have acquired during
their lifetimes.
D They tend to produce fewer offspring than
do others in the same environment.
9
What factor within a species increases the
likelihood that some members of a species will
survive when environmental conditions change
A variation
B disjunction
C polyploidy
D migration
bk
In order for evolution to occur, what must
happen in a population
A genetic drift
B geographic isolation
C natural selection
D reproductive isolation
bl
What is operating when unrelated species
living in different parts of the world, but with
similar niches, evolve similar traits
A convergent evolution
B genetic drift
C divergent evolution
D parallelism
bm
The Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to
determine the frequency of which alleles in a
population
A recessive alleles
B hybrid alleles
C dominant alleles
D masked alleles
bn
Based on the table below, use the Hardy-
Weinberg equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 to
determine the frequency of the short (tt)
genotype in a population of pea plants.
A 0.16
B 0.36
C 0.48
D 1.0
Pea Plants (population: 100)
TT Tt tt
36 48 16
bo
What type of natural selection favors average
individuals in a population
A disruptive selections
B bias
C directional selection
D stabilizing selection
bp
Scientists can estimate more accurately at what
point various groups of organisms diverged
evolutionarily from one another by using
which source of information
A fossil record
B DNA evidence
C migration patterns
D genetic equilibrium
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
30 CHAPTER 15 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 16
Name Date Class
1
What advantage does binocular vision provide
for primates
A increased social skills
B more variety in facial expressions
C increased color perception
D greater depth perception
2
You are researching the anatomy of an unknown
primate. You are told that it is an early hominid.
Where would you expect to find the foramen
magnum
A back of the skull because early hominids
walked on all fours
B bottom of the skull because early hominids
walked on all fours
C back of the skull because early hominids
walked upright
D bottom of the skull because early hominids
walked upright
5
What does the figure labeled B below illustrate
when compared to the figure labeled A
A
A advantages of a particular diet
B bipedalism
C specific place of origin
D cultural development
B
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Use the diagram below to answer question 3.
3
Humans share about 96 percent of their DNA
sequence with which group
A New World primates
B Old World monkeys
C gorillas and orangutans
D bonobos and chimpanzees
4
Nocturnal primates are characterized by what
feature
A ability to see color
B increased sense of smell
C teeth for specialized diets
D sharp black and white vision
6
What characteristic in New World monkeys
functions like a fifth limb
A prehensile tails
B opposable digits
C flexible wrists
D fingernails
7
How did Homo erectus differ from modern
Homo sapiens
A Homo erectus did not have an opposable
thumb.
B Homo sapiens are bipedal primates.
C Homo erectus had a lower jaw without a chin.
D Homo erectus had a lower jaw with a chin.
8
What is true about the primate fossil record
A It is complete.
B It is not complete.
C It is seldom helpful in following evolutionary
paths.
D It is simple, rather than complex.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 16 31

Chapter 16
Name Date Class
9
According to the diagram below of the evolution
of genus Homo, which is the closest ancestor of
Homo sapiens
A Homo erectus
B Homo ergaster
C Homo neanderthalensis
D Homo habilis
bk
What does the multiregional evolution model
hypothesize for modern races of humans
A They arose in isolated populations by convergent
evolution.
B They arose from one population by divergent
evolution.
C They arose from the New World primates.
D They arose from strepsirrhines.
bl
What has shown that Neandertals were a
distinct species from modern humans
A comparison of skull shapes
B DNA evidence from fossil bones
C position of the foramen magnum
D use of tools
bm
What factors threaten primate populations
around the world
A low birthrate
B loss of tropical habitats
C human predation
D All are factors that threaten primate populations.
bn
Which hypothesis threatens primate populations
around the world
A Mitochondrial Eve hypothesis
B Overlapping hypothesis
C Out-of-Africa hypothesis
D Mosaic Pattern hypothesis
bo
Homo habilis derived its name from which
characteristic
A use of stone tools
B larger brain
C flatter face
D reduced jaw
bp
Sets of fossilized footprints found by Mary
Leaky provided evidence of which
characteristic
A Australopithecines were bipedal and walked
upright.
B New World monkeys have prehensile tails.
C Cro-Magnons represented the beginning of
historic hunter-gatherer societies.
D Early modern humans could express themselves
artistically.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
32 CHAPTER 16 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 17
Name Date Class
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
1
Upon examining samples of water and mud from
a nearby river, you come across an unidentified
organism. The organism is unicellular and
autotrophic. In addition, you can identify a
membrane-bound nucleus in the cells. To what
kingdom does it belong
A Plantae
B Fungi
C Protista
D Eubacteria
Use the following illustration to answer questions
2 and 3.
Present
10 million
years ago
H I J K
C
2
What type of diagram is shown in the
illustration above
A dichotomous key
B cladogram
C DNA profile
D pedigree
G
F
3
I and J in the illustration are close together.
What does this indicate
A They share few derived characters.
B They are closest to the common ancestor.
C They share many derived characters.
D They share the same derived characters as H
and K.
A
E
B
D
4
The system of assigning two names to identify
an organism is called binomial nomenclature.
What does the first name of an organism identify
A family
B kingdom
C species
D genus
5
The scientific name for the African elephant is
Loxodonta africana. What is the species name
A Loxodonta
B africana
C L. africana
D Loxodonta sp.
6
What provides evidence that three distinctly
different vegetables, such as broccoli, cauliflower,
and kale, share a recent common ancestor
A They have cell walls.
B They produce strong aromas when cooked.
C They are about the same color.
D They have nearly identical chromosomes.
7
Which taxa is equivalent to a phylum
A domain
B family
C order
D division
8
Why are eugelnoids classified with plantlike
protists
A They form pseudopods.
B They contain chloroplasts and undergo
photosynthesis.
C They have a nucleus surrounded by a
membrane.
D They have a flagellum.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 17 33

Chapter 17
Name Date Class
9
The model below allows scientists to compare
DNA sequences from two species to estimate
how long it has been since they diverged from
a common ancestor. What is the name of this
model
A molecular clock
B cladogram
C pedigree
D family tree
bk
Members of which kingdom secrete enzymes
into their food and then absorb the digested
matter directly into their cells
A Protista
B Fungi
C Plantae
D Animalia
bl
As scientists began to learn more about
geologic time, they incorporated their findings
into systems of classification. What is the
system that takes into account an organism’s
evolutionary history
A binomial nomenclature
B phylogeny
C taxonomy
D historical classification
bm
What is the system by which each species is
given a two-part scientific name
A phylogenetics
B cladistics
C taxonomy
D binomial nomenclature
bn
Which would be the least reliable evidence in
determining whether or not two animals share
a taxonomic relationship
A physical structures and appearance
B appearance of their chromosomes
C diet and nutrition
D DNA sequences
bo
Which is a cluster of organisms distinct from
other clusters that shows evidence of a pattern
of ancestry and descent
A kingdom
B division
C phylum
D species
bp
What statement describes the thinking of
scientists before Darwin presented his theory
of evolution
A All species that ever lived were still alive.
B All species were separate and unchanging.
C Species could be distinguished by their DNA.
D Species could be distinguished by their color
patterns.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
34 CHAPTER 17 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 18
Name Date Class
1
What is the outer coat of proteins called that
surrounds the core of a virus
A capsule
B envelope
C membrane
D capsid
2
What is characteristic of the object shown
below
Spike
Genetic
material
5
Which bacterial adaptations helps a bacterium
avoid being engulfed by white blood cells
A capsule
B cell wall
C pili
D flagella
6
What does a virus need to replicate
A capsid, tail, and spikes
B DNA only
C set of prions
D host cell
Envelope
Capsid
A It is classified by its nucleic acid.
B It can replicate on its own.
C It has organelles and makes proteins.
D It is classified as a cell.
7
How do humans benefit from the presence of a
certain strain of E. coli in their intestines
A The E. coli makes Vitamin K.
B Humans provide oxygen for the bacteria to
live.
C The E. coli produces antibiotics in humans.
D Humans derive no benefit from any strain of
E. coli.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Use the following illustration to answer questions
3 and 4.
3
In the bacterial cell shown above, what is the
structure labeled A
A ribosome
B plasmid
C chromosome
D pili
4
How do the structures labeled B help increase
the diversity of prokaryotes and contribute to
resistance to antibiotics
A They help the bacterium move.
B They attach to other bacteria cells to
exchange genetic material.
C They help the cell attach to surfaces.
D They keep the cell from drying out.
8
Identify the process that is taking place in the
illustration below.
Cell
wall
Plasma
membrane
Chromosome
A endospore formation
B conjugation
C chemosynthesis
D binary fission
Cytoplasm
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 18 35

Chapter 18
Name Date Class
9
Streptococcus pyogenes is the bacterium that
causes strep throat. Based on its name, what is
the shape of the individual bacterial cells
A round
B rod
C spiral
D polyhedral
bk
Retroviruses, such as HIV, use an enzyme to
convert their RNA into double-stranded DNA.
What is this enzyme
A reverse polymerase
B DNA polymerase
C reverse transcriptase
D RNA synthetase
bl
What is true about prions
A They can be contracted much like a virus.
B They cause the brain to solidify.
C They are protein particles normally found in
cells.
D They are virus particles.
bn
Which event might induce a virus to enter a
lytic cycle after being dormant for several
years
A gaining weight
B taking vitamin supplements
C emotional stress
D regular sleep habits
bo
What viral disease was eliminated by a
worldwide vaccination program
A smallpox
B polio
C influenza
D genital herpes
bp
Why are methanogens obligate anaerobes
A They live in salty environments.
B They die in the presence of oxygen.
C They give off carbon dioxide as a waste
product.
D They carry out photosynthesis using chlorophyll.
bm
Which role do bacteria play in the illustration
shown below
The Nitrogen Cycle
A cause disease
B recycle nutrients
C produce medicines
D produce foods
Bacteria
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
36 CHAPTER 18 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 19
Name Date Class
1
Which of the following are all photosynthetic
protists
A algae
B protozoa
C funguslike protists
D unicellular protists
2
Amoebas extend their plasma membranes to
feed and move. What are these extensions
called
A flagella
B pseudopods
C webs
D vacuoles
Use the following illustration of a paramecium to
answer questions 3 and 4.
5
What is a mass of cytoplasm with many
diploid nuclei but no cell walls or membranes
called
A thallus
B plasmodium
C pseudopodia
D algae colony
6
Why are green algae similar to green plants
A They can have more than one nucleus in
each cell.
B They have chloroplasts and store food as
carbohydrates.
C The reproduce by spores.
D They both have peptiglycan in their cell
walls.
7
What microscopic protozoans live in the guts
of termites and digest the cellulose in the
wood
A microsporidia
B plasmodia
C sporozoites
D merozoites
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
What are the structures labeled A on the
paramecium
A contractile vacuoles
B oral grooves
C food vacuoles
D cilia
4
What is the function of structure B in the
paramecium
A expels water to maintain homeostasis
B discharges a pinelike structure
C digests food
D contains the cell’s genome
8
You have just returned from a subtropical
region. You have chills and fever, and suspect
that you might have contracted malaria. How
would you have gotten malaria
A bite of a male Anopheles mosquito
B drinking contaminated water
C bite of a female reduviid bug
D bite of a female Anopheles mosquito
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 19 37

Chapter 19
Name Date Class
9
How are the zooflagellates that cause sleeping
sickness similar to the sporozoan that causes
malaria
A They are autotrophs.
B They each have two hosts in their life cycle.
C They feed on carbohydrates.
D They move by pseudopods at some point in
their life cycles.
bk
Which groups of animal-like protists are
parasites
A amoebas
B ciliates
C algae
D sporozoans
bl
What do funguslike protists contain that true
fungi do not contain
A nuclei
B flagella
C centrioles
D cytoplasm
bn
Which funguslike protists have a phase where
the nucleus divides but no internal cell walls
form and, at one point, a spore produces a cell
with a flagellum
A cellular slime mold
B water mold
C acellular slime mold
D downey mildew
bo
The structure shown here stores food as oil
instead of carbohydrates. What is the organism
A dinoflagellate
B amoeba
C diatom
D microsporidium
bm
Four people who ate shellfish at a small
restaurant come down with a life-threatening
illness. Which, most likely, is a cause of this
illness
A toxins from dinoflagellates
B mosquito bites
C colonial algae
D diatomaceous earth
bp
What do foraminiferans and radiolarians have
that separates them from other amoebae
A multinucleate cells
B cilia
C test
D two hosts in their life cycle
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
38 CHAPTER 19 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 20
Name Date Class
1
In contrast to plant cells, the cell walls of fungi
are made up of which materials
A cellulose
B chitin
C lipids
D proteins
Use the illustration below to answer questions 2 and 3.
5
Food left in the refrigerator has developed a
coating of fuzz. Which hyphae spread across
surfaces
A rhizoids
B haustoria
C stolons
D sporangiophores
Use the illustration below to answer questions 6 and 7.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
2
Identify the overall structure shown above.
A roots
B vessels
C fruiting bodies
D hyphae
3
More than one might be noticeable in
each cell because many fungi have pores in the
septa.
A hyphae
B spores
C nuclei
D mycelia
4
In the woods, you find a fungus growing on a
dead log. Which feeding relationship describes
an organism that feeds on dead organic matter
A saprophytic
B mutualistic
C parasitic
D autotrophic
6
What is the structure above labeled A
A sporangium
B gametangium
C mycelium
D fruiting body
7
What is the branching, netlike mass in the
ground
A fruiting bodies
B mycelium
C conidiophores
D lichen
8
What separates yeasts from other fungi
A Yeasts are heterotrophs.
B Yeasts have cell walls.
C Yeasts are animal-like fungi.
D Yeasts are unicellular.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 20 39

Chapter 20
Name Date Class
9
are produced during the life cycles of
most fungi.
A gametangia
B spores
C conidiphores
D zygospores
Use the following illustration to answer questions 10
and 11.
bm
In which group of fungi has sexual reproduction
never been observed
A common molds
B sac fungi
C club fungi
D imperfect fungi
bn
Which structures form when Rhizopus stolonifer
reproduces sexually
A ascospores
B basidiospores
C conidiophores
D zygospores
bo
How do yeasts reproduce asexually
A forming spores
B budding
C fragmentation
D joining with lichens
bk
Identify the structure shown above.
A lichen
B mushroom
C Bird’s Nest fungus
D mycorrhizae
bl
Organism A produces food for itself and for
Organism B. Classify the relationship between
the two organisms.
A parasitic
B mutualistic
C commensalistic
D saprophytic
bp
While digging in your vegetable garden, you
find that the roots of the plants are covered with
a fungal network, but that the plants are healthy
and growing vigorously. What explains this
A bioremediation
B mycorrhizae
C haustoria
D lichen
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
40 CHAPTER 20 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 21
Name Date Class
1
Which characteristic is absent in nonvascular
plants
A cuticle
B alternation of generations
C chlorophyll for photosynthesis
D specialized transport tissues
2
Vascular seed plants grow in more habitats
than non-seed and nonvascular plants. Which
factor might account for this phenomenon
A Vascular seed plants grow taller and therefore
receive more sunlight.
B Vascular seed plants are not dependent on a
continuous film of water for fertilization.
C Vascular seed plants transport water more
quickly from their roots to their leaves.
D Vascular seed plants require more water than
nonvascular plants because they are larger.
3
Woody female cones, like the one shown below,
and male cones grow on the same tree. In
which division of seed plants would they be
found
5
Which division makes up more than 75 percent
of the plant kingdom
A Gnetophyta
B Coniferophyta
C Gnetophyta
D Anthophyta
6
Which adaptation helps to prevent water loss
in conifers
A cuticle coating on leaves
B lack of stomata
C presence of flowers
D extensive rhizoid network
Use the illustration below to answer questions 7 and 8.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
A Anthophyta
B Coniferophyta
C Cycadophyta
D Ginkgophyta
4
A large tree grows in your yard. How can it be
described
A diploid gametophyte
B haploid gametophyte
C diploid sporophyte
D haploid sporophyte
7
Identify the structure labeled A on the horsetail.
A strobilus
B sorus
C cotyledon
D cone
8
What is produced by the structure labeled A in
the illustration
A rhizoids
B thallose leaves
C spores
D rhizomes
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 21 41

Chapter 21
Name Date Class
9
What is the single greatest limiting factor for
plants to survive on land
A sunlight
B water resources
C availability of oxygen
D availability of nutrients
Use the illustration below to answer questions 13 and 14.
A
bk
Which is made up of diploid cells
A gamete
B gametophyte
C spore
D sporophyte
bl
One adaptation that helped plants survive on
land was the development of roots. What is the
function of most roots
A disperse spores
B repel excess water and nutrients
C transport water to stems and leaves
D produce food
B
bn
What is the structure labeled as A in the drawing
A fruit
B cotyledon
C sporophyte plant
D gametophyte plant
bo
Identify the structures labeled B in the drawing.
A seeds
B eggs
C cotyledons
D epiphytes
bm
Why are fruit trees classified as perennials
A Stems, leaves, flowers, and seeds grow in the
second year of the plant’s life.
B They are always eudicots.
C Plants live for several years and produce
flowers and seeds annually.
D The plant completes its life span in one
growing season.
bp
What structure anchors mosses to soil
A rhizoids
B strobilus
C prothallus
D rhizomes
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
42 CHAPTER 21 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 22
Name Date Class
Use the illustration below to answer questions 1 and 2.
5
What is characteristic of phloem cells
A dead at maturity and used transport water
from the roots to the rest of the plant
B dead at maturity and used to transport sugar
throughout the plant
C alive at maturity and used to transport water
from the roots to the rest of the plant
D alive at maturity and used to transport
sugars throughout the plant
1
Which statement is true about A in the
illustration
A Photosynthesis takes place here.
B A waxy layer forms here.
C Water flows up through it.
D Water evaporates through it.
6
A student conducted an experiment using the
setup below. Overall, what was the plant’s
response an example of
2
Where does most photosynthesis take place in
a leaf
A at A
B at B
C at C
D at D
A gravitropism
B nastic response
C phototropism
D thigmotropism
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
What do you expect to find at meristems
A rapidly dividing cells
B sclerenchyma cells
C dead cells
D stone cells
4
What does the outside layer of roots and stems
develop from
A parenchyma cells
B cork cambium
C ground tissues
D vascular cambium
7
What takes place when water evaporates from
inside the leaf and water is pulled up the plant
A tropism
B transpiration
C secondary growth
D photosynthesis
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 22 43

Chapter 22
Name Date Class
8
Describe the vein pattern on a maple leaf.
bm
They xylem forms an X shape in the center of
a(n) .
A eudicot stem
B eudicot root
C monocot stem
D monocot root
A simple
B palmate
C parallel
D pinnate
9
What can a grower do to produce plants that
are attractive and full of side branches
A Pinch off the apical meristem to decrease the
amount of auxin.
B Pinch off the apical meristems to increase the
amount of auxin.
C Pinch off the intercalary meristems to
increase the amount of auxin.
D Pinch off the intercalary meristems to
decrease the amount of auxin.
bk
What can be counted to determine the age of a
tree
A the number of branches
B the number of leaves
C the number of roots
D the number of annual rings
bl
What will a poinsettia grower accomplish by
providing the crop with 12 to 15 hours of
darkness each day
A longer time for photosynthesis
B colorful bracts
C fuller, more attractive plants
D decreased transpiration
bn
What is the water-carrying vasicular tissue
in plants that continuously carries minerals
dissolved in water from the roots to the leaves
A parenchyma
B phloem
C root hairs
D xylem
bo
What structure increases a root’s surface area
allowing it to take in more water
A loose root cap cells
B root hairs
C sieve tube members
D pericycle tissue
bp
Which structure is responsible for the opening
and closing of stomata
A stone cells
B guard cells
C companion cells
D trichomes
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
44 CHAPTER 22 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 23
Name Date Class
1
The factor that controls photoperiodism in
flowering plants is .
A hours of darkness
B amount of fertilizer
C air temperature
D dormancy
2
Identify the missing labels in the diagram
below.
1
5
The uniting of a sperm and an egg to form a
zygote is called .
A pollination
B fertilization
C meiosis
D germination
6
Describe how the strawberry plant shown in
the figure below has reproduced.
Cell divisions
4
Cell divisions
Diploid cells
(2n) Reproductive cells
develop
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Male gamete
(sperm)
Cell divisions
Female gamete
(egg)
3
Mature gametophyte
2
Cell divisions
A 1-meiosis forms spores; 2-zygote forms;
3-diploid; 4-sporophyte
B 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores;
3-haploid; 4-zygote forms
C 1-sporophyte; 2-meiosis forms spores;
3-diploid; 4-zygote forms
D 1-zygote forms; 2-sporophyte; 3-diploid;
4-meiosis forms spores
3
During the life cycle of a moss, where does
fertilization of the haploid egg take place
A in the female gametophyte archegonium
B in the male gametophyte antheridium
C in the female gametophyte capsule
D in the gametophyte prothallus
4
A characteristic of anthophytes is the .
A production of cones
B production of prothallus
C production of gemmae
D production of flowers
A asexually by fragmentation
B sexually by egg and sperm
C asexually by horizontal stems
D sexually by fragmentation
7
In flowering plants, fertilization takes place
.
A when pollen lands on the sticky stigma
B when pollen lands on the anther
C when a zygote forms
D when a stamen touches a pistil
8
Flowering plants with strong scents are usually
pollinated by .
A animals
B wind
C self-pollination
D cross-pollination
9
A spore or microspore is a .
A diploid cell produced by a sporophyte
B diploid cell produced by a gametophyte
C haploid cell produced by a gametophyte
D haploid cell produced by a sporophyte
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 23 45

Chapter 23
Name Date Class
bk
Once a seed forms from an ovule, a developing
monocot plant get its nourishment from
before green leaves appear
A fruit
B endosperm
C cotyledon
D ovary walls
Use the diagram to answer questions 11 and 12.
bn
What is true of alternation of generations in
the plant kingdom
A Gametophytes become larger as plants
become more complex.
B Sporophytes become less important as plants
become more complex.
C Gametophytes become smaller as plants
become more complex.
D Sporophytes are more obvious in smaller
plants.
B
A
bo
Why are conifers heterosporous
A They produce two cones on a tree.
B They produce megaspores.
C They produce two types of spores.
D They produce two zygotes that develop into
male and female cones.
bl
Name and describe the importance of the
structure labeled A.
A pistil; where pollination occurs
B anther; where pollen grains form
C pistil; where fertilization takes place
D anther; where ovaries are found
bp
A flower that has four sepals, four petals, and a
pistil is a(n) .
A complete, imperfect monocot
B incomplete, perfect dicot
C complete, perfect eudicot
D incomplete, imperfect eudicot
bm
What is produced on structure B
A eggs
B pollen grains
C two pollen tubes
D endosperm
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
46 CHAPTER 23 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 24
Name Date Class
1
Sponges are not plants because .
A they are multicellular
B they develop mesoderm
C they are sessile
D they have no cell walls
2
A previously unidentified organism is found
in a tropical rain forest. It exhibits bilateral
symmetry, heterotrophism, and has an
exoskeleton. Would you classify this organism
as a vertebrate
A Yes. Bilateral symmetry and heterotrophism
are unique to vertebrates.
B Yes. Only vertebrates are found in tropical
rain forests.
C No. Exoskeletons are not found in vertebrates.
D No. Vertebrates have radial symmetry.
5
A pseudocoelom is partly lined with tissue
derived from the .
A mesoderm
B endoderm
C ectoderm
D coelom
6
Which would you expect to be more complex
animals—coelomates or acoelomates
A acoelomates, because they have less wasted
space in their body structure
B acoelomates, because they have more
mesodermal tissue
C coelomates, because they store more
nutrient-rich fluid in their bodies
D coelomates, because they have protected
space for specialized organs in their bodies
Use the illustration to answer questions 3 and 4.
Use the illustration to answer questions 7 and 8.
A
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
Which describes the body structure of
Organism A
A asymmetry
B bilateral symmetry
C radial symmetry
D anterior symmetry
4
What is the surface labeled X in Animal B
A anterior
B dorsal
C posterior
D ventral
7
Identify the structure shown above.
A blastula
B gastrula
C invertebrate
D zygote
8
What is the layer labeled A in the structure
above, and what are some systems that develop
from it
A ectoderm; nervous system and skin
B mesoderm; muscle system
C mesoderm; respiratory system
D endoderm; digestive system
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 24 47

Chapter 24
Name Date Class
9
At the beach you are stung by a jellyfish. In the
diagram below, what is the structure labeled A
on the cnidarian tentacle that holds a tube that
contains poison
bm
You observe the formation of an embryo of an
unknown species under the microscope. The
first body opening develops into a mouth in
the gastrula. What does this signify
A The animal is a deuterostome.
B The animal is a protostome.
C The animal will be an acoelomate.
D The animal will have a pseudocoelom.
A cnidocyte
B collar cell
C nematocyst
D trigger
bk
In jellyfishes, the medusa is the sexually
reproducing phase because it .
A produces cnidocytes
B reproduces by mitosis
C produces eggs and sperm
D produces polyps
bl
The body plan shown in the structure below is
a(n) .
A coelomate body plan
B pseudocoelomate body plan
C acoelomate body plan
D eukaryotic body plan
bn
A cnidarian nervous system is called a nerve
net. When touched, a cnidarian responds by
contracting its body. Is this response regulated
by the cnidarian’s brain
A Yes. All nerve impulses are transmitted
through the brain.
B Yes. The brain controls the nerve net
C No. The cnidarian’s brain is not involved in
reflexive actions.
D No. Cnidarians do not have brains.
bo
Which do sponge embryos lack because they
do not develop an endoderm or a mesoderm
A epithelial-like cells
B tissues
C filter-feeding mechanisms
D support structure
bp
When fertilization occurs externally, .
A a zygote forms
B budding takes place
C parthenogenesis takes place
D segmentation takes place
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
48 CHAPTER 24 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 25
Name Date Class
Use the illustration below to answer questions 1 and 2.
4
Which method of asexual reproduction is the
planarian in this figure undergoing
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
1
What is the structure labeled A
A pharynx
B ganglion
C flame cell
D mantle
2
How does the structure labeled A function in a
planarian
A Dissolved oxygen and nutrients are swept
into the body by diffusion.
B Cilia sweep water into excretory tubules.
C Cilia sweep water out of the body.
D Carbon dioxide is excreted by them through
the mouth.
3
When comparing roundworms and flatworms,
which is true
A Flatworms have no blood; roundworms do.
B Flatworms have a dorsal foot; roundworms
do not.
C Flatworms have one body opening;
roundworms have two.
D Flatworms have no nervous system;
roundworms have a nervous system.
A binary fission
B budding
C regeneration
D spore formation
5
You are a coroner examining human remains.
You detect a parasite. On closer examination,
you determine that the parasite has bilateral
symmetry and a pseudocoelom. You determine
that the parasite is a .
A cnidarian
B planarian
C tapeworm
D roundworm
6
Your fish tank has a growth of green algae on
the inside. You put a snail in the tank and a few
days later notice that the tank is clean. The
snail helped clean the tank by using its .
A radula
B shell
C muscular foot
D siphon
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 25 49

Chapter 25
Name Date Class
7
What group does the mollusk shown below
belong
bm
What is the main characteristic that separates
annelids from other worms
A regeneration
B gills
C nephridia
D segmentation
A Gastropod; It has a hinged shell.
B Bivalve; It has two shells.
C Cephalopod; It has no external shell.
D Cestoda; It is a parasite.
8
In most mollusks, what is the site of gas
exchange with the external environment
A mouth
B nephridia
C siphon
D gills
9
The membrane that secretes a shell in some
mollusks is the .
A radula
B mantle
C muscular foot
D skin
bk
How is oxygen delivered to tissues and carbon
dioxide removed from tissues in a mollusk
with an open circulatory system
A The tissues are bathed in water.
B They are delivered in blood vessels.
C They get their oxygen through gills.
D The tissues are bathed in blood.
bl
What do segmented worms use to help them
move through soil
A gizzard
B setae
C radula
D nephridia
bn
Refer to the cladogram shown below to
determine which characteristic developed
most recently.
Polychaeta Oligochaeta Hirudinea
Parapodia
Ancestral annelid
Annelid Cladogram
Clitellum
A parapodia on polychaetes
B oligochaetes
C clitellum on oligochaetes
D posterior body sucker
Posterior
body sucker
bo
Earthworms are often used by farmers to
aerate soil. Which, produced by earthworms,
fertilizes soil
A excrement or castings
B setae
C parapodia
D clitella
bp
have hydrostatic skeletons and move
in a thrashing manner.
A Flatworms
B Roundworms
C Mollusks
D Annelids
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
50 CHAPTER 25 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 26
Name Date Class
1
Which feature is characteristic of arthropods
and relates them to annelids
A jointed appendages
B an endoskeleton
C segmentation
D vertebrae
2
The exoskeleton of an arthropod is made up of
.
A cellulose
B bone
C chitin
D muscle
5
What structure in arthropods is similar in
function to nephridia in mollusks and flame
cells in planaria
A mandibles
B Malpighian tubules
C antennae
D eyes
6
Observe the mouthpart of the insect in the
illustration below and determine how it would
feed.
Use the illustration below to answer questions 3 and 4.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
Identify the structure labeled A in the drawing.
A gill
B book lung
C Malpighian tubule
D spiracle
4
What is the function of the system shown in
the illustration above
A It delivers oxygen to body cells.
B It detects pheremones.
C It removes wastes.
D It removes carbon dioxide from body cells.
A
A cut plant tissues
B siphon nectar
C sponge up food
D pierce skin and suck liquids
7
Which group of arthropods has remained
largely unchanged since the Triassic Period
A beetles
B spiders
C crustaceans
D horseshoe crabs
8
What is the purpose of the waggle dance in
certain bees
A to locate food
B to locate mates
C to locate the Sun
D to locate a nest
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 26 51

Chapter 26
Name Date Class
9
During which stage does the animal change into
an adult form during complete metamorphosis
bm
Study the cladogram below to determine
which animal represents the most recently
evolved group of arthropods
Arachnids
Crustaceans
Insects
Trilobites
(extinct)
A tick
B spider
C lobster
D honeybee
Ancestral Arthropod
A larva
B nauplius
C nymph
D pupa
bk
What is reduced when adult butterflies feed on
food different from that used by the
developing larvae
A competition
B number of offspring
C predation
D length of time for development
bl
Which stage resembles the adult during
incomplete metamorphosis
A larva
B nauplius
C nymph
D pupa
bn
What behavior do some spiders engage in to
catch food
A They suck blood.
B They construct webs.
C They molt five to ten times.
D They communicate in a waggle dance.
bo
During the summer, you find a perfectly
formed, empty insect exoskeleton stuck to the
bark of a tree. What happened
A molting
B dehydration
C shedding
D parthenogenesis
bp
Which pairs of arachnid appendages is located
most anterior on its body
A chelipeds
B pedipalps
C chelicerae
D spinnerets
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
52 CHAPTER 26 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 27
Name Date Class
1
Echinoderms are the first animals in evolutionary
history to have .
A a protostome mouth
B an endoskeleton
C pheromones
D spiracles
2
All echinoderms have radial symmetry as
adults and as larvae.
A bilateral symmetry
B asymmetry
C radial symmetry
D pentagonal symmetry
4
Which identifies the structure labeled B
through which water is pulled into the watervascular
system
A ampulla
B tube feet
C madreporite
D eyespots
5
At which position are eyespots located
A at A
B at B
C at C
D at D
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 3, 4, and 5.
3
What characteristic (labeled A) of the water
vascular system helps a sea star to move and
get food
A ring canal
B tube feet
C madreporite
D pedicellaria
6
The feeding role of echinoderms is classified as
.
A predator
B prey
C parasite
D commensalism
7
Which characteristic indicates that some
echinoderms are sessile
A grazing sand for food
B short arms with active tube feet
C a leathery outer body with muscles
D long arms that trap food
8
In a tide pool, you find a sea star with four regular
length arms and one very short arm. What is
probably happening
A regeneration
B sexual reproduction
C test development
D gastrula development
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 27 53

Chapter 27
Name Date Class
Use the diagram below to answer questions 9 and 10.
Dorsal tubular
nerve cord
Notochord
Muscle blocks
bm
How does a lancelet obtain food
A It swims after its food.
B It filter feeds while buried in sand.
C It spreads enzymes over the food.
D It scrapes food from its gills.
Mouth
Pharyngeal
pouches
Ancestral
thyroid gland
Anus
Postanal
tail
9
What feature in the diagram above is eventually
replaced by bone or cartilage in a vertebrate
A dorsal tubular nerve cord
B notochord
C pharyngeal pouches
D postanal tail
bk
Which feature in the diagram above eventually
became gills for gas exchange in water
A dorsal tubular nerve cord
B notochord
C pharyngeal pouches
D postanal tail
bl
Invertebrate chordates have all of the
characteristics of vertebrate chordates except
for .
A a postanal tail
B a backbone
C a notochord
D pharyngeal pouches
bn
What enables an invertebrate chordate to make
side-to-side movements of the body and tail
A a flexible notochord
B muscle blocks
C an anterior brain
D the postanal tail
bo
Which chordate feature is the only one
remaining in adult tunicates
A notochord
B dorsal tubular nerve cord
C gill slits
D postanal tail
bp
In the vertebrate body, what is needed for
production of thyroid hormone
A oxygen
B saltwater
C iodine
D nitrogen
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
54 CHAPTER 27 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 28
Name Date Class
1
During embryonic development, what replaces
the notochord in vertebrates
A the dorsal nerve cord
B cartilage
C the vertebral column
D the neural crest
Use the diagram below to answer question 2 and 3.
Caudal fin
Dorsal fins
5
What feature of amphibians probably prevents
them from inhabiting colder climates
A They are endothermic.
B They breathe through their skin.
C They have a three-chambered heart.
D They are ectothermic.
6
Why couldn’t amphibians use gills to breathe
once they started walking on land
A There isn’t enough oxygen in the air.
B Air temperature fluctuates too much.
C Gills need to be moist for gas exchange.
D There is too much oxygen in the air.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Anal fin
Pelvic fins
2
On what part of the body is the caudal fin
located
A anterior
B posterior
C dorsal
D ventral
Pectoral fin
3
What feature of many fins reduces the chance
of fishes rolling to the side
A dorso-ventral arrangements
B posterior location
C paired fins
D balanced distribution over the body
4
You are fishing, and notice that every time you
drop your line into the water, the fish move
down. What is this adaptation
A depth perception system
B swim bladders
C motion sensor
D lateral line system
7
What enables a fish to remove up to 85 percent
of the dissolved oxygen from water
A The fish mouth stays open.
B Blood in the gills flows opposite to the flow
of water over the gills.
C Blood flows in the same direction as water
flows over the gills.
D The fish has lungs.
8
The development of what feature enabled fish
to begin to feed on larger, more active prey
A slime glands in the skin
B paired fins
C jaws
D scales
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 28 55

Chapter 28
Name Date Class
9
Identify the adaptation for land, labeled A, in
the drawing.
A cloaca
B gill
C nictitating membrane
D tympanic membrane
bk
You are comparing toads and frogs. What is
characteristic of toads but not of frogs
A Toads have moist, smooth skin.
B Toads have more powerful legs.
C Toads need water for reproduction.
D Toads have poison glands.
A
bm
Why do many fish eggs and juvenile fishes
become prey for other animals
A Most fertilization and development of fish is
internal.
B Most fertilization and development of fish is
external.
C Fish lay very few eggs.
D Most fertilized fish eggs are guarded through
development.
bn
How would you distinguish a newt from a
salamander
A Compare their body shapes.
B Compare where they lay eggs.
C Compare their habitats.
D Compare their skin.
bo
What is a major limiting factor that affects all
fish populations
A habitat alteration
B hagfish and lampreys
C lack of water
D dams
bl
In the figure below, what will have to change in
this stage of development for the organism to
become a frog and live on land
A Lungs will have to replace gills.
B Gills have to develop.
C It will need a tail for balance on land.
D The heart will change from three to four
chambers.
bp
How have exotic species affected amphibian
populations
A They have increased the variety of amphibian
species.
B They have competed with amphibians for
food and habitat.
C They have drained wetland habitats.
D They have caused increased UV light exposure.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
56 CHAPTER 28 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 29
Name Date Class
1
Why was the shelled amniotic egg an
important advance for reptiles
A It enabled them to lay protected eggs in
water.
B It enabled them to lay more eggs.
C It meant they were not dependent on water
to lay eggs.
D It meant that they could lay eggs and ignore
them.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 2 and 3.
Leathery
shell
Amnion
Embryo
5
What adaptation keeps reptiles from losing
internal fluids
A dry, scaly skin
B kidneys that filter blood
C skin that grows with the animal
D the ability to control body temperature
6
What do crocodiles and alligators have in
common with birds and mammals but not
with other reptiles
A a four-chambered heart
B ability to control body temperature
C amniotic egg
D Jacobson’s organ
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Chorion
Yolk sac
Allantois
2
What in the diagram contains nutrients for the
embryo
A allantois
B amnion
C chorion
D yolk sac
3
Which membrane allows oxygen to enter while
keeping fluids in the egg
A allantois
B amnion
C chorion
D yolk sac
4
Which animal would depend on the surrounding
environment to regulate its body temperature
A cardinal
B gerbil
C lizard
D house cat
7
Amniotes are hypothesized to have separated
into three groups based on .
A body scales
B skull structure
C molting abilities
D hip structure
8
What do birds have that distinguishes them
from other organisms
A four-chambered heart
B wings
C amniotic eggs
D feathers
9
Endothermy, feathers, and which adaptation
equip a bird for flight
A solid bone structure
B maintaining a low body temperature
C light-weight bone structure
D urinary bladder
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 29 57

Chapter 29
Name Date Class
Use the diagram below to answer question 10.
B
A
bk
Which direction does oxygenated air move
when a bird exhales.
A from A to B
B from A to C
C from C to A
D from B to A
bl
In a bird’s digestive tract, what performs
mechanical digestion
A teeth in its bills
B rough surfaces in the crop
C stones in the gizzard
D scales in the small intestine
C
D
bn
Birds that have feet with two toes forward and
two toes backward to cling to tree trunks are
members of which order
A Passiformes (perching song birds)
B Ciconiiformes (wading birds)
C Piciformes (cavity nesters)
D Anseriformes (waterfowl)
bo
In which structure do both reptiles and birds
reabsorb water from uric acid
A the crop
B cloaca
C small intestine
D kidney
bp
Downy feathers on birds have which function
A insulation
B flight
C waterproofing
D to preen contour feathers
bm
A bird with eyes on the front of its head, such
as the one shown below, will probably have
which life habit
A live in an aquatic habitat and dabble for food
B be flightless
C perch on small branches and eat seeds
D be a bird of prey
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
58 CHAPTER 29 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 30
Name Date Class
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
1
What characteristics are key for distinguishing
a mammal from other animals
A location of eyes and hair
B teeth and having a diaphragm
C kidneys and having a diaphragm
D hair and mammary glands
2
Why are mammals able to live throughout the
world in a variety of ecosystems
A They have a low metabolic rate.
B They regulate body heat internally.
C They are ectotherms.
D Hair is a sensory device.
3
The hair of a mammal is made of .
A cellulose
B keratin
C chitin
D chlorophyll
4
Which structure, modeled in the diagram below
and found only in mammals, helps them to
maintain a high intake of oxygen
A lungs
B kidneys
C diaphragm
D cecum
Air movement
Chest cavity
Lung
Diaphragm
5
Under what circumstances would blood vessels
near the surface dilate and deliver more blood
than usual
A when body temperature increases
B when the body is losing heat
C when there is too little oxygen in the blood
D when blood vessels contract
6
Which would an animal with a long digestive
system and a large cecum probably feed on
A insects
B bacteria
C plants
D herbivores
7
Which is the only egg-laying mammal
A monotremes
B marsupials
C placental animals
D manatees
8
An animal that explores an area, finds sources
of food, and returns later to feed, exhibits
which complex behavior
A hording
B learning and remembering
C good eyesight
D acute hearing
9
Which type of mammal develops for a short
period in the uterus, followed by extended
development in the mother’s pouch
A placental animal
B monotreme
C marsupial
D nocturnal primate
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 30 59

Chapter 30
Name Date Class
bk
Which statement best supplies information to
complete the diagram below
placental mammals
marsupials
Therapsids
A Adults give birth to live young.
B Adults lay eggs.
C Offspring live in the mother’s pouch after
birth.
D Offspring receive milk from the mother.
bl
Which structure provides food and oxygen and
removes wastes from developing young
A uterus
B placenta
C diaphragm
D mammary glands
bm
Which order of placental animals has the most
developed brain of all mammals
A Insectivora
B Carnivora
C Proboscidea
D Primates
monotremes
bn
What is a characteristic of bats, which belong
to Order Chiroptera
A They are all gnawing mammals.
B They are all carnivorous.
C They are all bats.
D Their hind limbs are modified as wings.
bo
What might have been responsible for the
expansion of mammalian diversity in the
Cenozoic Era
A Flowering plants increased and new niches
and habitats formed.
B Water became increasingly available.
C Dinosaurs became less competitive.
D Flowering plants decreased in variety.
bp
What do deer, cattle, and hippopotamuses have
in common that places them in Order
Artiodactyla
A They have one or three toes on each hoof.
B They have horns or antlers.
C They have two or four toes on each hoof.
D They are carnivores.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
60 CHAPTER 30 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 31
Name Date Class
1
Changes in temperature, duration of daylight,
and the presence of a predator are examples of
.
A behavior
B reflexes
C stimuli
D instinct
2
An animal that forms a social attachment to its
mother shortly after birth demonstrates which
learned behavior
A operant conditioning
B habituation
C imprinting
D classical conditioning
3
What kind of behavior is demonstrated in the
illustration below
5
Every year chipping sparrows are at feeders in
yards from April to October. They are not there
during the winter months. What probable
behavior does this reflect
A foraging
B nurturing
C migrating
D competing
6
In the graph below, when does human body
temperature decrease significantly
Body
temperature
101
100
99
0
Human
Circadian Pattern of
Body Temperatures
4 8 12 16 20
Hour of the day
A between hours 20 and 4
B between hours 6 and 14
C between hours 14 and 18
D between hours 18 and 20
24
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
A territorial behavior
B dominance hierarchy behavior
C courting behavior
D altruistic behavior
4
What behavior do many animals exhibit to
reduce competition and gain control of an
area
A courtship
B fight-or-flight responses
C habituation
D territoriality
7
What happens because pheromones are species
specific
A Predators are warned to keep away.
B Food sources are identified.
C The chemicals attract only members of the
same species.
D The chemicals attract members of other species.
8
What is the energy cost associated with nurturing
behavior
A Much energy is spent when many offspring
are produced at one time.
B Much energy is spent nurturing many offspring
after birth.
C Much energy is spent nurturing fewer offspring.
D More energy is spent before the birth of a
single individual than after.
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 31 61

Chapter 31
Name Date Class
9
In the graph below, what is the rank of the male
seal whose genes will increase in frequency in
the seal gene pool
Percent of total matings
40
30
20
10
A 1
B 6
C 7
D 10
Male Dominance v. Mating Success
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Rank in male dominance heirarchy
bk
What is characteristic of agonistic behavior
A It occurs between members of the same species.
B It occurs between members of different species.
C It usually results in the death of one individual.
D It is an example of operant conditioning.
bl
A honeybee’s waggle dance signals the location
of food to other members of a hive. Which form
of behavior is a waggle dance
A communication behavior
B altruistic behavior
C territorial behavior
D learned behavior
bm
Expelling or ejecting eggs from a nest by a
newly hatched cuckoo is an example of which
behavior
A habituation
B fixed action pattern
C operant conditioning
D imprinting
bn
Farmers use loud blasts from sound guns to
scare crows away from corn crops, but the
crows eventually stop reacting. What is the
crows’ response
A territoriality
B habituation
C cognitive behavior
D imprinting
bo
Seagulls often drop clams from a great height
onto rocks to crack open the shells. Why is this
an example of cognitive behavior
A The gulls are imprinting.
B The gulls are being territorial.
C The gulls are salivating.
D The gulls are using rocks as tools.
bp
During what type of communication might
you see a male animal display bright colors or
movements
A nurturing
B pecking
C altruism
D courtship
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
62 CHAPTER 31 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 32
Name Date Class
1
Identify the layer of skin labeled A that contains
hair follicles, sweat and oil glands, and muscles.
A
5
What type of damage to skin is characterized
by redness, mild discomfort, and the death of
only epidermal cells
A first degree burns
B deep scrapes
C third degree burns
D uncontrollable division of cells
Use the diagram below to answer questions 6 and 7.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
A epidermis
B dermis
C subcutaneous layer
D nerve tissue layer
2
Which layer of the skin continually divides by
mitosis to replace cells that are lost from the
skin’s surface
A fatty connective tissue
B inner epidermal layer
C the dermis
D melanin-producing cells
3
Which type of tissue contracts causing hair
and skin to stand up and form a “goose
bump”
A muscle
B hair follicle
C sweat gland
D hair shaft
4
What characteristic of skin is important for
bone formation
A Sweat absorbs body heat when it evaporates
and cools skin.
B Vitamin D is made when skin is exposed to
ultraviolet light.
C Nerve endings in the dermis protect from
scrapes and breaks.
D Intact skin prevents entry of many
microorganisms and foreign substances.
6
What type of tissue is located at the area
labeled A in the illustration above
A compact bone
B spongy bone
C marrow
D cartilage
7
Where is spongy bone located in the diagram
above
A A
B B
C C
D D
8
What produces red and white blood cells and
platelets
A osteoblasts
B osteoclasts
C red bone marrow
D yellow bone marrow
9
An elbow is an example of what type of joint
A ball-and-socket
B pivot
C hinge
D gliding
A
B
D
C
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 32 63

Chapter 32
Name Date Class
bk
What happens when you twist your arm and
damage the ligaments at your elbow
A bursitis
B osteoarthritis
C sprains
D rheumatoid arthritis
bl
Which type of muscle is under conscious
control
A smooth muscle
B skeletal muscle
C cardiac muscle
D involuntary muscles
bm
What does the illustration below describe about
muscles
bn
In contrast to muscles in a long-distance
runner, muscles in a weight lifter have .
A more myoglobin
B more mitochondria
C fewer mitochondria
D fewer fast-twitch muscles
bo
During strenuous activity, lack of which
substance limits ATP available for muscle
contraction
A lactic acid
B calcium
C oxygen
D melanin
bp
The part of the muscle that contracts is the
.
A sarcomere
B muscle fiber
C myosin
D actin
A Muscles always push but never pull.
B One muscle in a pair relaxes as the other
contracts.
C Sarcomeres lengthen as muscles contract.
D Paired muscles contract at the same time.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
64 CHAPTER 32 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 33
Name Date Class
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
Use the illustration below to answer questions 1 and 2.
1
In the illustration below, what is the structure
labeled B
A
A dendrite
B axon
C nucleus
D cell body
B
2
Which structure in the illustration above
receives impulses
A A
B B
C C
D D
3
Predict what will happen as an impulse travels
along the axon in the diagram below.
Inside
cell
Outside
cell
Resting potential
C
[Na ] [K ]
[Na ] [K ]
A More potassium will be pumped into the cell.
B More sodium will be pumped into the cell.
C Potassium will be pumped out of the cell.
D Sodium will be pumped out of the cell.
4
In which do impulses move fastest
A neurons that carry dull pain
B myelinated neurons
C nonmyelinated neurons
D all neurons.
D
5
How do impulses move at a synapse
A by an electrical charge
B by a chemical neurotransmitter
C by touching the next neuron
D by osmosis
6
Which would play a major role in making plans
for choosing a career
A Central Nervous System, because it analyzes
and stores information.
B Central Nervous System, because it control
reflexes.
C Peripheral Nervous System, because it relays
information to skeletal muscles.
D Peripheral Nervous System, because it
responds involuntarily.
7
Which structure would be most active if you
were in a hot, dry desert without water
A medulla oblongata
B pons
C cerebrum
D hypothalamus
8
What is true about reflexes
A They travel to the brain on sensory neurons.
B They travel to the brain on motor neurons.
C They are controlled voluntarily.
D They are processed in the spinal cord and
not in the brain.
9
Fluid found in which structure of the inner ear
stimulates hair cells in response to sound
A semicircular canals
B cochlea
C oval window
D ear canal
bk
Ears are adapted to respond to which form of
energy
A vibrations
B light
C chemical
D heat
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 33 65

Chapter 33
Name Date Class
bl
Which structure in the illustration below
inverts an image and focuses it on the retina
A A
B B
C C
D D
bm
What structure can change the diameter of the
pupil in response to light energy
A iris
B lens
C rods and cones
D cornea
bn
What transmits impulses from pain, heat, and
touch receptors in the skin and other body
organs
A interneurons
B motor neurons
C sensory neurons
D free nerve endings
bo
How does drug use affect dopamine
A It is not reabsorbed at the synapse.
B It is reabsorbed at the synapse.
C It is not released at the synapse by the sending
neuron.
D It does not bind to receptor sites on the
receiving neuron.
bp
What is characteristic of drug tolerance
A psychological or physiological dependence
on a drug
B craving for a drug
C need for more of a drug to attain a desired
effect
D withdrawal effects
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
66 CHAPTER 33 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 34
Name Date Class
1
Which is true of the human circulatory
system
A It transports oxygen and nutrients.
B It makes blood cells.
C It breaks down food and releases nutrients.
D It is the first line of defense against pathogens.
Use the diagram below to answer questions 2 and 3.
1
6
A person has the blood type represented in the
illustration below. What blood type can this
person safely receive
A A only
B A or O
C O only
D AB
A
A
A
A
A
A
3
4
2
Which is the path that blood follows through
the heart as it returns from the head and body
A 1→2
B 2→1
C 3→4
D 4→3
2
7
Which blood component can recognize and
kill disease-causing organisms
A red blood cells
B white blood cells
C platelets
D fibrin
Use the diagram below to answer questions 8 and 9.
A
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
Which chamber does blood flow into once it
has picked up a fresh supply of oxygen
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
4
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart
A arteries
B veins
C capillaries
D lymphatics
5
Red blood cells transport oxygen attached to
which components
A nuclei
B plasma membranes
C hemoglobin
D nitrogen
8
Identify the structure labeled A in the above
diagram.
A bronchi
B bronchiole
C alveolus
D pharynx
9
What happens in the netlike structure labeled
B in the above diagram
A Carbon dioxide and oxygen diffuse into the
blood.
B Nitrogen and oxygen are exchanged.
C Carbon dioxide and oxygen are exchanged.
D Nitrogen and carbon dioxide remain constant.
B
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 34 67

Chapter 34
Name Date Class
bk
At which point in the respiratory system cycle
does cellular respiration take place
A during breathing
B during external respiration
C during internal respiration
D when air moves into the bronchioles
bl
Which causes an increase in the breathing rate
A high concentration of oxygen in the blood
B high concentration of blood in the lung
capillaries
C high concentration of carbon dioxide in the
blood
D low concentration of carbon dioxide in the
blood
bm
Which is taking place in this diagram
Ribs
Diaphragm
bn
Once blood is brought to the kidneys, through
which structure is it filtered
A loop of Henle
B collecting tubule
C renal vein
D Bowman’s capsule
bo
Into which structure are most of the water and
nutrients reabsorbed after urine has been
formed
A convoluted tubule
B Bowman’s capsule
C glomerulus
D collecting tubule
bp
Which makes up the body’s excretory system
A lungs
B skin
C kidneys
D All are part of the excretory system.
A Inhalation; the diaphragm is contracting.
B Exhalation; the diaphragm is relaxing.
C Inhalation; the chest cavity is reduced.
D Exhalation; the rib cage is expanding.
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
68 CHAPTER 34 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 35
Name Date Class
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2.
5
What is the function of the structures shown
below
A
B
C
D
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
1
In which part of the digestive system shown
above does mechanical and chemical digestion
start
A A
B B
C C
D D
2
Where does absorption take place
A A
B B
C C
D D
3
What does amylase break down
A lipids
B starches
C proteins
D vitamins
4
Where is chemical digestion completed
A liver
B pancreas
C small intestine
D large intestine
A to moisten food
B to absorb water from chyme
C to absorb digested nutrients
D to produce Vitamin K
6
The alkaline fluid made by the pancreas
counteracts .
A water in chyme
B acidic solutions from gastric glands in the
stomach
C pepsin from the stomach
D bile from the liver
7
During digestion, proteins are broken down to
.
A starches
B fatty acids and glycerol
C simple sugars
D amino acids
8
What organic compounds are needed in small
quantities for growth and metabolism
A proteins
B vitamins
C minerals
D fats
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 35 69

Chapter 35
Name Date Class
9
What is the function of simple sugars in the
body
A They are the building blocks of proteins.
B They are made of the same materials as fats.
C They are a source of fiber.
D They provide energy for cells.
bk
In the diagram shown below, where does
peristalsis occur
F
E
A
B
bm
Which description explains what is occurring
in the diagram between blood glucose levels
and pancreatic activity
Pancreas secretes
less insulin
Higher blood sugar
Lower blood sugar
Pancreas secretes
more insulin
A It is a feedback mechanism that maintains
homeostasis.
B It is an immune system responding to
prevent disease.
C It describes the digestion of sugar.
D It is the hormonal regulation of egg production.
D
A A and D
B C and F
C C and E
D E and F
bl
Which body system transports hormones from
endocrine glands to their target tissues
A circulatory system
B digestive system
C excretory system
D nervous system
C
bn
Which structures enable most cells to
communicate with each other
A fibrin
B white blood cells
C nerves
D receptor molecules
bo
What is characteristic of steroid hormones
such as estrogen
A They bind to starches.
B They cause target cells to start protein synthesis.
C They bind to a receptor in the plasma
membrane to get into cells.
D They are target cells.
bp
Which is a result of secretion of adrenaline
A increased cell activity
B onset of lethargy
C decreased heart rate
D decreased blood glucose
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
70 CHAPTER 35 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 36
Name Date Class
1
In which part of the sperm cell are mitochondria
found
Head
(5 μm)
Acrosome
A head
B midpiece
C tail
D acrosome
Midpiece
(6 μm)
º
Nucleus
Tail (55 μm)
Fibrous
sheath of
flagellum
2
Through which do sperm travel after leaving
the testes
A vas deferens
B urethra
C epididymis
D seminal vesicles
6
After ovulation, what does a follicle become
A the embryo
B the corpus luteum
C the zygote
D the placenta
7
What organelle in a sperm acrosome weakens
the plasma membrane of an egg cell
A mitochondria
B Golgi apparatus
C lysosomes
D ribosomes
8
Where does fertilization take place in the
below diagram
Blastocyst
Morula
A
Zygote
D
B
C
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
Which pH value would you expect semen to
have
A 2
B 5
C 7
D 9
4
Which hormone stimulates the production
and secretion of testosterone in the testes
A FSH
B Estrogen
C LH
D GnRH
5
Which describes ovulation
A A follicle ruptures and releases an egg.
B An egg turns in the ovary.
C The endometrium breaks down.
D A sperm joins with an egg.
A A
B B
C C
D D
9
Where will the blastocyst implant itself and
develop
A in the ovary
B in the oviduct
C in the uterus
D in the vagina
bk
Which sequence describes human development
during the first week after fertilization
A egg→morula→blastocyst→zygote
B egg→zygote→morula→blastocyst
C morula→blastocyst→egg→zygote
D morula→egg→zygote→blastocyst
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 36 71

Chapter 36
Name Date Class
Use the diagram below to answer questions 11 and 12.
bl
Which extraembryonic membrane develops
into the fetal portion of the placenta
A A
B B
C C
D D
bm
Identify the structure labeled C
A amnion
B yolk sac
C allantois
D umbilical cord
bn
Prior to puberty, the development of eggs is
stopped at which phase of meiosis
A first meiotic division
B second meiotic division
C when polar bodies form
D when a zygote forms
bo
Which stimulates involuntary uterine muscles
to contract
A human growth hormone
B oxytocin
C thyroxine
D estrogen
bp
Heavy cigarette smoking and use of alcohol
throughout pregnancy usually increases the
likelihood of .
A multiple births
B birth of a male child
C a baby with a viral infection
D a baby being born with medical problems
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
72 CHAPTER 36 STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE

Chapter 37
Name Date Class
1
Rules for demonstrating that a specific organism
is responsible for causing a specific disease
were devised by which person
A Louis Pasteur
B Robert Koch
C Edward Jenner
D Robert Gallo
Use the diagram below to answer questions 5 and 6.
2
Conjunctivitis is an eye condition that is always
found in the human population. How would
you describe the prevalence of this disease
A epidemic
B pandemic
C endemic
D global
5
Identify the cell labeled A.
A neutrophil
B macrophage
C lymphocyte
D lysozyme
Copyright © Glencoe/McGraw-Hill, a division of The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc.
3
Which is a function of lymph nodes throughout
the body
A They are substances foreign to the body that
produce an immune response.
B They filter lymph and remove foreign materials
from lymph.
C They stay inside capillaries to bathe body tissues.
D They store blood and destroy damaged blood
cells.
4
Which are prescription drugs that kill or inhibit
the growth of microorganisms
A antibodies
B antibiotics
C lymphocytes
D activated B cells
6
What is the function of the cell labeled B
A It causes virally infected cells to produce
interferon.
B It produces antibodies and memory cells.
C It engulfs foreign microorganisms.
D It releases cytokines.
7
What conclusion can be reached based on the
graph below about treatment of a disease with
antibiotics
Penicillin-resistant Gonorrhea
10%
9%
8%
7%
6%
5%
4%
3%
2%
1%
0%
1980
Resistance of Gonorrhea to Penicillin
1981
1982
1983
1984
1985
Year
A The success rate increased.
B The number of antibiotics increased.
C The number of cases of the disease increased.
D The failure of penicillin to treat the disease
increased.
1986
1987
1988
1989
1990
STANDARDIZED TEST PRACTICE CHAPTER 37 73

Chapter 37
Name Date Class
8
Which describes how cytotoxic T cells act in
the body
A bind to pathogens, release a chemical, and
lyses pathogens
B bind to pathogens and produce more pathogens
C bind to pathogens and produce antibodies
D bind to pathogens, release a chemical that
lyses antibodies
9
After the first exposure to an antigen, what
carries the record of the exposure in the body
A activated B cells
B a mass of antibodies
C memory B cells
D nonactivated B cells
bk
Using the graph below, predict what probably
happened to the memory B cell count after the
second exposure
Serum Antibody level
First
Exposure to
Antigen X
Naive
B cells
Activated
B cells
Primary
anti-X
response
Memory
B cells
0 2 4 6
Second
Exposure to
Antigen X
Weeks
Activated
B cells
Secondry
anti-X
response
Antibodies
8 10 12
A It increased.
B It decreased.
C It remained the same as after the first exposure.
D No memory B cells were made.
bl
As an infant and again at about age 14, you were
deliberately exposed to weakened DPT toxins
and organisms. However, you have shown no
signs of these diseases. What happened when
you were an infant and again at age 14
A You were immunized against DPT.
B You were given a booster shot.
C You got a shot of interferon.
D You developed one of these diseases.
bm
How does HIV destroy immune response in
the body
A It reproduces in B cells that produce antibodies.
B It reproduces in and destroys T helper cells,
eventually reducing the number of B cells.
C It reproduces in and destroys T helper cells,
eventually increasing the number of B cells.
D It encourages cells to make interferon.
bn
The city health inspector closes a local
restaurant when several people become ill
from E. coli-contaminated food. What is the
restaurant an example of
A a pathogen
B a booster
C a reservoir
D an epidemic source
bo
Which occurs when an immune system forms
antibodies to its own proteins
A acquired immunity
B allergies
C autoimmune disease
D anaphylactic shock
bp
When people who are allergic to pollen come
in contact with it, what causes their eyes to
water and itch
A antigens from red blood cells
B enzymes from platelets
C histamines from body cells
D hormones from the pituitary gland
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