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Solutions to Homework Set No. 4 – Probability Theory (235A), Fall ...

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<strong>Solutions</strong> <strong>to</strong> <strong>Homework</strong> <strong>Set</strong> <strong>No</strong>. 4 <strong>–</strong> <strong>Probability</strong> <strong>Theory</strong> (<strong>235A</strong>), <strong>Fall</strong> 2011<br />

1. A function ϕ : (a, b) → R is called convex if for any x, y ∈ (a, b) and α ∈ [0, 1] we<br />

have<br />

ϕ(αx + (1 − α)y) ≤ αϕ(x) + (1 − α)ϕ(y).<br />

(a) Prove that an equivalent condition for ϕ <strong>to</strong> be convex is that for any x < z < y in (a, b)<br />

we have<br />

ϕ(z) − ϕ(x) ϕ(y) − ϕ(z)<br />

≤ .<br />

z − x y − z<br />

(1)<br />

Deduce using the mean value theorem that if ϕ is twice continuously differentiable and<br />

satisfies ϕ ′′ ≥ 0 then it is convex.<br />

Solution. Let x ≤ z ≤ y and α = (y − z)/(y − x) so that z = αx + (1 − α)y and<br />

α ∈ [0, 1]. If ϕ is convex, then<br />

ϕ(z) ≤<br />

<br />

y − z<br />

<br />

ϕ(x) +<br />

y − x<br />

subtracting ϕ(z)(z − x)/(y − x) from both sides,<br />

ϕ(z) − ϕ(x)<br />

z − x<br />

≤<br />

ϕ(y) − ϕ(z)<br />

y − z<br />

<br />

z − x<br />

<br />

ϕ(y),<br />

y − x<br />

for any x ≤ z ≤ y<br />

Reverse process gives the original condition. For the second part of question, use the mean<br />

value theorem for [x, z] and [z, y] and ϕ ′′ ≥ 0 <strong>to</strong> give (1).<br />

(b) Prove Jensen’s inequality, which says that if X is a random variable such that<br />

P(X ∈ (a, b)) = 1 and ϕ : (a, b) → R is convex, then<br />

ϕ(EX) ≤ E(ϕ(X)).<br />

Hint. Start by proving the following property of a convex function: If ϕ is convex then at<br />

any point x0 ∈ (a, b), ϕ has a supporting line, that is, a linear function y(x) = ax + b<br />

such that y(x0) = ϕ(x0) and such that ϕ(x) ≥ y(x) for all x ∈ (a, b) (<strong>to</strong> prove its existence,<br />

use the characterization of convexity from part (a) <strong>to</strong> show that the left-sided derivative of<br />

ϕ at x0 is less than or equal <strong>to</strong> the right-sided derivative at x0; the supporting line is a line<br />

1


passing through the point (x0, ϕ(x0)) whose slope lies between these two numbers). <strong>No</strong>w<br />

take the supporting line function at x0 = EX and see what happens.<br />

Solution. If you can show that ϕ has a supporting line y(x) = ax + b, it is easy <strong>to</strong><br />

prove the inequality. As mentioned in Hint, put x0 = EX, and then<br />

ϕ(X) ≥ y(X) = aX + b, which implies E(ϕ(X)) ≥ aEX + b = y(EX) = ϕ(EX).<br />

Existence of supporting line<br />

Choose and fix z ∈ R in (1). Then from (1),<br />

where A := infw≥z (ϕ(w)−ϕ(z))<br />

(w−z)<br />

where B := sup w≤z<br />

(ϕ(z)−ϕ(w))<br />

(z−w)<br />

ϕ(x) ≥ ϕ(z) + A(x − z) for any x ≤ z<br />

that depends only on z. Similarly,<br />

ϕ(y) ≥ ϕ(z) + B(y − z) for any y ≥ z<br />

that depends only on z. By defining α = (A + B)/2, we have<br />

ϕ(x) ≥ ϕ(z) + α(x − z) := L(x) for any x ∈ R<br />

because A ≤ B. So, for each fixed z, L(x) is a linear function, and ϕ(z) = L(z) and<br />

ϕ(x) ≥ L(x) for all x.<br />

2. If X is a random variable satisfying a ≤ X ≤ b, prove that<br />

and identify when equality holds.<br />

V(X) ≤<br />

(b − a)2<br />

, (2)<br />

4<br />

Solution. Suppose that a = b. Since (X − E(X)) 2 is a quadratic function of X, the line<br />

intersecting (a, (a − E(X)) 2 ) and (b, (b − E(X)) 2 ) is above the (X − E(X)) 2 for a ≤ X ≤ b.<br />

That is,<br />

(X − E(X)) 2 ≤ (b − EX)2 − (a − EX) 2<br />

(X − a) + (a − EX)<br />

b − a<br />

2<br />

2


Taking the expectation and simplifying,<br />

V(X) ≤ (EX − a)(b − EX) ≤<br />

(b − a)2<br />

4<br />

Equalities are attained in the first inequality when X = a or X = b (when the parabola and<br />

the line intersect) and in the second inequality when EX − a = b − EX, that is, EX = a+b<br />

2 .<br />

Hence, X must be a random variable on {a, b} with EX = a+b.<br />

If a = b, the inequality (in<br />

2<br />

fact, equality) is obvious.<br />

3. Let X1, X2, . . . be a sequence of i.i.d. (independent and identically distributed) random<br />

variables with distribution U(0, 1). Define events A1, A2, . . . by<br />

An = {Xn = max(X1, X2, . . . , Xn)}<br />

(if An occurred, we say that n is a record time).<br />

(a) Prove that A1, A2, . . . are independent events. Hint: For each n ≥ 1, let πn be the<br />

random permutation of (1, 2, . . . , n) obtained by forgetting the values of (X1, . . . , Xn) and<br />

only retaining their respective order. In other words, define<br />

πn(k) = #{1 ≤ j ≤ n : Xj ≤ Xk}.<br />

By considering the joint density fX1,...,Xn (a uniform density on the n-dimensional unit<br />

cube), show that πn is a uniformly random permutation of n elements, i.e. P(πn = σ) =<br />

1/n! for any permutation σ ∈ Sn. Deduce that the event An = {πn(n) = n} is independent<br />

of πn−1 and therefore is independent of the previous events (A1, . . . , An−1), which are all<br />

determined by πn−1.<br />

Solution. Let σ = (i1, · · · , in) ∈ Sn. Since Xi ∼ U(0, 1) and Xi’s are independent,<br />

fX1,··· ,Xn = 1 only when Xi ∈ (0, 1) for all i. So,<br />

P(πn = σ) = P(Xi1 ≤ · · · ≤ Xin)<br />

1 xin xi2 = · · · fX1,··· ,Xndxi1 · · · dxin<br />

0 0 0<br />

1 xin xi2 = · · · 1dxi1 · · · dxin<br />

0<br />

= 1<br />

n!<br />

0<br />

3<br />

0


<strong>No</strong>w, the probability that Xi ≤ Xn for all 1 ≤ i ≤ n is<br />

by fixing the largest, Xn, and permuting the rest.<br />

P(An) = P({πn(n) = n}) =<br />

(n − 1)!<br />

, where (n − 1)! is obtained<br />

n!<br />

(n − 1)!<br />

n!<br />

For any σ ∈ Sn, P(πn = σ) = 1<br />

n! and for any σn−1 ∈ Sn−1, P(πn−1 = σn−1) = 1 . Hence<br />

(n−1)!<br />

= 1<br />

n<br />

P(An, πn−1 = σn−1) = 1<br />

n! = P(An)P(πn−1 = σn−1),<br />

which shows the independence. Thus, Ai’s are independent since πn−1 are determined by<br />

A1, · · · , An−1.<br />

(b) Define<br />

Rn =<br />

n<br />

k=1<br />

1Ak<br />

= #{1 ≤ k ≤ n : k is a record time}, (n = 1, 2, . . .).<br />

Compute E(Rn) and V(Rn). Deduce that if (mn) ∞ n=1 is a sequence of positive numbers such<br />

that mn ↑ ∞, however slowly, then the number Rn of record times up <strong>to</strong> time n satisfies<br />

<br />

<br />

P |Rn − log n| > mn log n −−−→<br />

n→∞ 0.<br />

Solution.<br />

E(Rn) =<br />

n<br />

k=1<br />

V(Rn) = V n <br />

k=1<br />

E(1Ak ) =<br />

1Ak<br />

=<br />

n<br />

k=1<br />

n<br />

P(Ak) =<br />

k=1<br />

V(1Ak ) =<br />

n<br />

k=1<br />

n<br />

k=1<br />

1<br />

k<br />

1<br />

k<br />

= log n + O(1)<br />

1<br />

− = log n + O(1)<br />

k2 √<br />

The second equality follows from independence. The claim about P(|Rn−log n| > mn log n)<br />

follows directly from Chebyshev’s inequality.<br />

4


4. Compute E(X) and V(X) when X is a random variable having each of the following<br />

distributions:<br />

1. X ∼ Binomial(n, p) ; E(X) = np, V(X) = np(1 − p)<br />

2. X ∼ Poisson(λ) ; E(X) = λ, V(X) = λ<br />

3. X ∼ Geom(p) ; E(X) = 1/p, V(X) = (1 − p)p −2<br />

4. X ∼ U{1, 2, . . . , n} ; E(X) = n+1<br />

(n+1)(n−1)<br />

, V(X) = 2 12<br />

5. X ∼ U(a, b) ; E(X) = a+b<br />

(b−a)2<br />

, V(X) = 2 12<br />

6. X ∼ Exp(λ) ; E(X) = 1<br />

1 , V(X) = λ λ2 6. (a) If X, Y are independent r.v.’s taking values in Z, show that<br />

P(X + Y = n) =<br />

∞<br />

k=−∞<br />

P(X = k)P(Y = n − k) (n ∈ Z)<br />

(compare this formula with the convolution formula in the case of r.v.’s with density).<br />

Solution. {X + Y = n} = <br />

{X = k, Y = n − k}. Since the events in the union<br />

are disjoint,<br />

P(X + Y = n) =<br />

∞<br />

k=−∞<br />

k∈Z<br />

P(X = k, Y = n − k) =<br />

∞<br />

k=−∞<br />

P(X = k)P(Y = n − k)<br />

(b) Use this <strong>to</strong> show that if X ∼ Poisson(λ) and Y ∼ Poisson(µ) are independent then<br />

X + Y ∼ Poisson(λ + µ).<br />

Solution. By part (a),<br />

P(X + Y = n) =<br />

n<br />

e<br />

k=0<br />

−λ λk µn−k<br />

e−µ<br />

k!<br />

−(λ+µ) 1<br />

= e<br />

n!<br />

n<br />

k=0<br />

5<br />

(n − k)!<br />

n<br />

k<br />

= e−(λ+µ)<br />

<br />

λ k µ n−k = e<br />

n<br />

k=0<br />

λ k µ −(n−k)<br />

k!(n − k)!<br />

−(λ+µ) 1<br />

(λ + µ)n<br />

n!


This implies that X + Y ∼ Poisson(λ + µ).<br />

(c) Use the same “discrete convolution” formula <strong>to</strong> prove directly that if X ∼ Bin(n, p)<br />

and Y ∼ Bin(m, p) are independent then X + Y ∼ Bin(n + m, p). You may make use<br />

of the combina<strong>to</strong>rial identity (known as the Vandermonde identity or Chu-Vandermonde<br />

identity)<br />

Solution.<br />

k<br />

j=0<br />

P(X + Y = k) =<br />

<br />

n m<br />

=<br />

j k − j<br />

n + m<br />

k<br />

P(X = j, Y = k − j)<br />

k<br />

<br />

, (n, m ≥ 0, 0 ≤ k ≤ n + m).<br />

j=0<br />

k<br />

<br />

n<br />

= p<br />

j<br />

j=0<br />

j (1 − p) n−j<br />

<br />

m<br />

p<br />

k − j<br />

k−j (1 − p) m−(k−j)<br />

<br />

= p k (1 − p) n+m−k<br />

k<br />

<br />

n m<br />

= p<br />

j k − j<br />

j=0<br />

k (1 − p) n+m−k<br />

n + m<br />

6. Prove that if X is a random variable that is independent of itself, then X is a.s.<br />

constant, i.e., there is a constant c ∈ R such that P(X = c) = 1.<br />

Solution. Let FX be the c.d.f. of X. Since X is independent of itself,<br />

P(X ≤ x) = P(X ≤ x, X ≤ x) = P(X ≤ x)P(X ≤ x),<br />

which implies that FX(x) = 0 or 1 for each x ∈ R. Recall that FX(x) is nondecreasing,<br />

limx→−∞ FX(x) = 0 and limx→∞ FX(x) = 1. Thus, there exists c ∈ R such that<br />

lim<br />

x→c− FX(x) = 0 and lim<br />

x→c + FX(x) = 1<br />

Since FX is right continuous, P(X = c) = FX(c) − FX(c−) = 1.<br />

6<br />

k<br />

<br />

.

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