CFL Pre-Test 2011.pdf

Command Fitness Leader Course Pre-Test
1. What provides the CO with a means of assessing the general fitness of command
members?
a. Physical Readiness Test
b. Physical Fitness Assessment
c. Physical Readiness Training
d. Physical Fitness Test
2. What are the components of the PFA?
a. Medical screening, physical readiness test, and body composition assessment
b. Body composition assessment, warm-up, curl-ups, push-ups, cardio option, cooldown
c. Medical screening, body composition assessment, curl-ups, push-ups, and
cardio option
d. Height and weight screening, circumference measurement, and physical
readiness test
3. What are the semi-annual PFA cycles for Navy defined as?
a. The dates established on the command’s 10 week PFA notice
b. 1 Jan – 30 June (Spring) and 1 Jul – 31 Dec (Fall)
c. 1 Jan – 30 June (cycle 1) and 1 Jul – 31 Dec (Cycle 2)
4. How long are CFLs required to maintain original and official PFA and FEP
documentation?
a. Until next PFA cycle
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years
5. Within how many days are CFLs required to input PFA data into PRIMS for an
official PFA cycle?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days

6. The ability to sustain muscle contractions over a period of time without fatigue is
called?
a. Muscular endurance
b. Cardiovascular endurance
c. Muscular strength
d. Muscular endurance and strength
7. The ability of the heart and lungs to deliver oxygen to working muscles is called?
a. Cardiorespiratory endurance
b. Cardiovascular endurance
c. Muscular endurance
d. Muscular strength
8. At a minimum, FEP shall be conducted . . . . . . . times a week for a total of
. . . . . . . minutes.
a. 3, 60 min
b. 3, 45 minutes
c. 5, 60 minutes
d. 3, 150 minutes
9. During the official PFA, what is the required uniform of the day?
a. Navy T-shirt, Navy shorts, and Navy ball cap
b. Any T-shirt and shorts, as long as they are blue and gold
c. Physical Training Uniform (PTU), shirt tucked into shorts
d. As determined by the CO or OIC
10. What footwear can be worn with the PTU during an official PFA?
a. Running shoes, but not minimalist running shoes
b. Any shoes or boots the Sailor prefers
c. Running shoes, including minimalist running shoes
11. (TRUE/FASLE) If a member fails the BCA portion of the PFA, the entire PFA is
counted a failure.
a. True
b. False
12. (TRUE/FASLE) A member, who fails the BCA portion of the PFA, is not required to
participate in the PRT, since they have already incurred a failure.
a. True
b. False

13. Which of the following is NOT a valid medical waiver for the PFA?
a. PRT medical waiver for the 1.5 mile run signed by the AMDR
b. BCA medical waiver signed by the AMDR
c. PRT medical waiver for the all cardio options signed by the AMDR
d. All of the above are valid PFA medical waivers
14. Which safety procedures are required during the PRT?
a. A safety plan to include notification of medical in the event of an emergency
b. At least 2 CPR monitors on the course at all times
c. A safety plan, which includes emergency notification information, and at least 2
CPR monitors at the PRT site at all times.
d. Medical personnel at the PRT site
15. (TRUE/FASLE) If a member is medically waived from any portion of the PFA, the
score will be an average of the remaining events.
a. True
b. False
16. (TRUE/FASLE) Drilling Reservists with two or more PFA failures in most recent 3-
year period are prohibited from Individual Augmentee Manpower Mobilizations,
unless the most recent PFA is passed.
a. True
b. False
17. (TRUE/FASLE) Active Duty Sailors with 2 or more PFA failures in most recent 3-
year period may not transfer overseas, participate in special duty programs or
GWOT assignments, unless the most recent PFA was passed.
a. True
b. False
18. Active Duty and Reserve Sailors with 3 or more PFA failures in the most recent 4-
year period are ineligible for . . . . . . .
a. Administrative Separation (ADSEP).
b. a transfer waiver.
c. permanent change of stations, transfer, reenlistment, or extension.
d. a transfer waiver, PCS move, transfer, reenlistment, or extension.
19. (TRUE/FASLE) Commands/Units that are unable to complete the PRT due to
deployment or operational commitments must select the DEP/OP status for the PRT.
a. True
b. False

20. When is a member authorized to NOT participate in the BCA?
a. A valid BCA medical waiver
b. DEP/OP status approved by the ISIC for the entire command
c. Onboard less than 10 weeks
d. A valid BCA medical waiver or DEP/OP status approved by the ISIC for the entire
command
21. (TRUE/FALSE) The CFL is responsible for providing general nutrition guidance and
meal plans to members on FEP:
a. True
b. False
22. If a Sailor checks onboard after the command’s official PFA cycle (and does not
have a PFA record for the current cycle), they are required to complete a BCA.
a. True
b. False
c. It is up to the Commanding Officer
23. If a . . . . . . . is granted to a Sailor with 3 or more PFA failures in a 4-year period, the
Sailor should be retained onboard the present command until the completion of
obligated service or expiration of the waiver, which ever occurs first.
a. Progress Waiver
b. DOD BCA Exception
c. Medical Waiver
d. Readiness Waiver
24. Who has the authority to approve a readiness waiver?
a. CFL
b. CO
c. ISIC
d. ECH III command or higher
25. Who has the authority to approve a transfer waiver for Sailors with 3 or more PFA
failures in the most recent 4 year period?
a. CFL
b. NAVPERSCOM (PERS-4)
c. ISIC (ECH II or ECH III Command
d. CO

26. An ADSEP board has elected to board-retain a member in the Navy with 3 or more
PFA failures. Is the member eligible for PCS orders?
a. Yes, if the member has been granted a transfer waiver
b. No, the member must remain at the current command until EAOS
c. Yes, at the CO’s discretion
d. No, the member must remain in the local area
27. A Sailor receives a readiness waiver. What needs to occur once the waiver expires
and the member still has 3 or more PFA failures?
a. Start the ADSEP process
b. Request renewal of the readiness waiver
c. Nothing, the member stays onboard until they pass the next official PFA
d. Request an additional waiver or start the ADSEP process
28. CFLs shall verify PRIMS Data for newly reported personnel. If a member checks on
board with previous failures and no documented page 13 in the member’s Electronic
Service Record (ESR), the CFL shall:
a. Issue a Page 13 via NSIPS
b. Immediately start the ADSEP process
c. Enroll member in FEP
d. Issue a Page 13 and enroll the member in FEP
29. Who may perform an official Body Composition Assessment that is recorded in
PRIMS?
a. Medical personnel
b. Command Fitness Leaders
c. MWR fitness staff
d. Command Fitness Leaders and MWR fitness staff
30. If an enlisted member fails the most recent PFA, what must occur?
a. Frocking or advancement must be deferred
b. Military Bearing mark must be set to 1.0 in the periodic evaluation
c. Nothing, action must only be taken once 3 or more PFA failures have occurred
d. Page 13 entry must be made, if this is the second failure in a row
31. What is the maximum allowable body fat percentage for males and females under
40 years of age?
a. 22% for males and 33% for females
b. 23% for males and 34% for females
c. 24% for males and 35% for females
d. 26% for males and 36% for females

32. Once a Page 13 has been issued to document a PFA failure of enlisted personnel,
verify the Page 13 in . . . . . . . and electronically forward the Page 13 to . . . . . . . for
inclusion in the member's ESR.
a. PERSONNEL, OPNAV N135F
b. PRIMS, BUPERS
c. NSIPS, NAVPERSCOM
d. EASIS. BUPERS
33. If an officer fails a PFA, what must occur?
a. A Letter of Notification must be issued and filed in the CFL records for 1st failure.
For the 2 nd and 3 rd failures, the original must be forwarded to NAVPERSCOM
Record Management/Policy Branch (PERS313) for entry into the OMPF
b. A Letter of Notification must be issued and forwarded to NAVPERSCOM Record
Management/Policy Branch (PERS313) for entry into the OMPF after each PFA
failure.
c. Nothing, officers are not counseled on PFA failures.
d. A Letter of Notification must be issued and filed in the local records.
Revised 8/2011