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ACC 422 Week 5 Final Exam<br />

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ACC 422 Week 5 Final Exam<br />

1) Which of the following is NOT considered cash for financial reporting purposes?<br />

A. Postdated checks and I.O.U.'s<br />

B. Money orders, certified checks, and personal checks<br />

C. Petty cash funds and change funds<br />

D. Coin, currency, and available funds<br />

2) What is the preferable presentation of accounts receivable from officers, employees, or affiliated<br />

companies on a balance sheet?<br />

A. As assets but separately from other receivables.<br />

B. As offsets to capital.<br />

C. As trade notes and accounts receivable if they otherwise qualify as current assets.<br />

D. By means of footnotes only.<br />

3) Which of the following items should NOT be included in the Cash caption on the balance sheet?<br />

A. Amounts on deposit in checking account at the bank<br />

B. Coins and currency in the cash register<br />

C. Postage stamps on hand<br />

D. Checks from other parties presently in the cash register<br />

4) The advantage of relating a company's bad debt expense to its outstanding accounts receivable is<br />

that this approach<br />

A. is the only generally accepted method for valuing accounts receivable.<br />

B. gives a reasonably correct statement of receivables in the balance sheet.<br />

C. makes estimates of uncollectible accounts unnecessary.<br />

D. best relates bad debt expense to the period of sale.<br />

5) Which of the following is a generally accepted method of determining the amount of the<br />

adjustment to bad debt expense?<br />

A. A percentage of accounts receivable NOT adjusted for the balance in the allowance<br />

B. A percentage of sales adjusted for the balance in the allowance<br />

C. An amount derived from aging accounts receivable and NOT adjusted for the balance in<br />

the allowance


D. A percentage of sales NOT adjusted for the balance in the allowance<br />

6) Assuming that the ideal measure of short-term receivables in the balance sheet is the discounted<br />

value of the cash to be received in the future, failure to follow this practice usually does NOT make<br />

the balance sheet misleading because<br />

A. the amount of the discount is NOT material.<br />

B. most short-term receivables are NOT interest-bearing.<br />

C. most receivables can be sold to a bank or factor.<br />

D. the allowance for uncollectible accounts includes a discount element.<br />

7) Eller Co. received merchandise on consignment. As of January 31, Eller included the goods in<br />

inventory, but did NOT record the transaction. The effect of this on its financial statements for<br />

January 31 would be<br />

A. net income and current assets were overstated and current liabilities were understated.<br />

B. net income, current assets, and retained earnings were overstated.<br />

C. net income, current assets, and retained earnings were understated.<br />

D. net income was correct and current assets were understated.<br />

8) If the beginning inventory for 2006 is overstated, the effects of this error on cost of goods sold for<br />

2006, net income for 2006, and assets at December 31, 2007, respectively, are<br />

A. understatement, overstatement, overstatement.<br />

B. overstatement, understatement, overstatement.<br />

C. understatement, overstatement, no effect.<br />

D. overstatement, understatement, no effect.<br />

9) The accountant for the Orion Sales Company is preparing the income statement for 2007 and the<br />

balance sheet at December 31, 2007. Orion uses the periodic inventory system. The January 1, 2007<br />

merchandise inventory balance will appear<br />

A. as a deduction in the cost of goods sold section of the income statement and as a current<br />

asset on the balance sheet.<br />

B. only as an asset on the balance sheet.<br />

C. as an addition in the cost of goods sold section of the income statement and as a current<br />

asset on the balance sheet.<br />

D. only in the cost of goods sold section of the income statement.<br />

10) The use of a Discounts Lost account implies that the recorded cost of a purchased inventory<br />

item is its<br />

A. invoice price less the purchase discount taken.<br />

B. invoice price less the purchase discount allowable whether taken or not.<br />

C. invoice price plus the purchase discount lost.<br />

D. invoice price.<br />

11) When using the periodic inventory system, which of the following generally would NOT be<br />

separately accounted for in the computation of cost of goods sold?


A. Purchase returns and allowances of merchandise during the period<br />

B. Cost of transportation-in for merchandise purchased during the period<br />

C. Cash (purchase) discounts taken during the period<br />

D. Trade discounts applicable to purchases during the period<br />

12) The use of a Purchase Discounts account implies that the recorded cost of a purchased<br />

inventory item is its<br />

A. invoice price less the purchase discount taken.<br />

B. invoice price less the purchase discount allowable whether taken or not.<br />

C. invoice price plus any purchase discount lost.<br />

D. invoice price.<br />

13) In no case can "market" in the lower-of-cost-or-market rule be more than<br />

A. estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less reasonably predictable<br />

costs of completion and disposal and an allowance for an approximately normal profit margin.<br />

B. estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less reasonably predictable<br />

costs of completion and disposal, an allowance for an approximately normal profit margin, and an<br />

adequate reserve for possible future losses.<br />

C. estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less reasonably predictable<br />

costs of completion and disposal.<br />

D. estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business.<br />

14) When the direct method is used to record inventory at market<br />

A. only the portion of the loss attributable to inventory sold during the period is recorded<br />

in the financial statements.<br />

B. the market value figure for ending inventory is substituted for cost and the loss is buried<br />

in cost of goods sold<br />

C. a loss is recorded directly in the inventory account by crediting inventory and debiting<br />

loss on inventory decline.<br />

D. there is a direct reduction in the selling price of the product that results in a loss being<br />

recorded on the income statement prior to the sale.<br />

15) Designated market value<br />

A. may sometimes exceed net realizable value.<br />

B. should always be equal to net realizable value less a normal profit margin.<br />

C. should always be equal to net realizable value.<br />

D. is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable<br />

value less a normal profit margin.<br />

16) The retail inventory method is based on the assumption that the


A. ratio of cost to retail changes at a constant rate.<br />

B. proportions of markups and markdowns to selling price are the same.<br />

C. ratio of gross margin to sales is approximately the same each period.<br />

D. final inventory and the total of goods available for sale contain the same proportion of<br />

high-cost and low-cost ratio goods.<br />

17) In 2006, Lucas Manufacturing signed a contract with a supplier to purchase raw materials in<br />

2007 for $700,000. Before the December 31, 2006 balance sheet date, the market price for these<br />

materials dropped to $510,000. The journal entry to record this situation at December 31, 2006 will<br />

result in a credit that should be reported<br />

A. as an appropriation of retained earnings.<br />

B. on the income statement.<br />

C. as a current liability.<br />

D. as a valuation account to Inventory on the balance sheet.<br />

18) The gross profit method of inventory valuation is invalid when<br />

A. there is no beginning inventory because it is the first year of operation.<br />

B. there is a substantial increase in inventory during the year.<br />

C. none of these.<br />

D. a portion of the inventory is destroyed.<br />

19) Which of the following is NOT a major characteristic of a plant asset?<br />

A. Acquired for use<br />

B. Acquired for resale<br />

C. Yields services over a number of years<br />

D. Possesses physical substance<br />

20) The cost of land does NOT include<br />

A. costs of improvements with limited lives.<br />

B. costs of removing old buildings.<br />

C. special assessments.<br />

D. costs of grading, filling, draining, and clearing.<br />

21) If a corporation purchases a lot and building and subsequently tears down the building and<br />

uses the property as a parking lot, the proper accounting treatment of the cost of the building<br />

would depend on<br />

A. the contemplated future use of the parking lot.<br />

B. the length of time for which the building was held prior to its demolition.<br />

C. the intention of management for the property when the building was acquired.


D. the significance of the cost allocated to the building in relation to the combined cost of<br />

the lot and building.<br />

22) To be consistent with the historical cost principle, overhead costs incurred by an enterprise<br />

constructing its own building should be<br />

A. allocated on an opportunity cost basis.<br />

B. eliminated completely from the cost of the asset.<br />

C. allocated on a pro rata basis between the asset and normal operations.<br />

D. allocated on the basis of lost production.<br />

23) When computing the amount of interest cost to be capitalized, the concept of "avoidable<br />

interest" refers to<br />

A. that portion of total interest cost which would NOT have been incurred if expenditures<br />

for asset construction had NOT been made.<br />

B. a cost of capital charge for stockholders' equity.<br />

C. that portion of average accumulated expenditures on which no interest cost was<br />

incurred.<br />

D. the total interest cost actually incurred.<br />

24) The period of time during which interest must be capitalized ends when<br />

A. the asset is abandoned, sold, or fully depreciated.<br />

B. no further interest cost is being incurred.<br />

C. the activities that are necessary to get the asset ready for its intended use have begun.<br />

D. the asset is substantially complete and ready for its intended use.<br />

25) Construction of a qualifying asset is started on April 1 and finished on December 1. The<br />

fraction used to multiply an expenditure made on April 1 to find weighted-average accumulated<br />

expenditures is<br />

A. 9/12.<br />

B. 8/12.<br />

C. 11/12.<br />

D. 8/8.<br />

26) When funds are borrowed to pay for construction of assets that qualify for capitalization of<br />

interest, the excess funds NOT needed to pay for construction may be temporarily invested in<br />

interest-bearing securities. Interest earned on these temporary investments should be<br />

A. multiplied by an appropriate interest rate to determine the amount of interest to be<br />

capitalized.<br />

B. offset against interest cost incurred during construction.<br />

C. used to reduce the cost of assets being constructed.<br />

D. recognized as revenue of the period.


27) When a plant asset is acquired by issuance of common stock, the cost of the plant asset is<br />

properly measured by the<br />

A. book value of the stock.<br />

B. par value of the stock.<br />

C. stated value of the stock.<br />

D. market value of the stock.<br />

28) If an industrial firm uses the units-of-production method for computing depreciation on its only<br />

plant asset, factory machinery, the credit to accumulated depreciation from period to period during<br />

the life of the firm will<br />

A. vary with sales revenue.<br />

B. be constant.<br />

C. vary with unit sales.<br />

D. vary with production.<br />

29) The term "depreciable cost," or "depreciable base," as it is used in accounting, refers to<br />

A. the estimated market value of the asset at the end of its useful life.<br />

B. the total amount to be charged (debited) to expense over an asset's useful life.<br />

C. the cost of the asset less the related depreciation recorded to date.<br />

D. the acquisition cost of the asset.<br />

30) Which of the following most accurately reflects the concept of depreciation as used in<br />

accounting?<br />

A. A method of allocating asset cost to an expense account in a manner which closely<br />

matches the physical deterioration of the tangible asset involved.<br />

B. The process of charging the decline in value of an economic resource to income in the<br />

period in which the benefit occurred.<br />

C. The process of allocating the cost of tangible assets to expense in a systematic and<br />

rational manner to those periods expected to benefit from the use of the asset.<br />

D. An accounting concept that allocates the portion of an asset used up during the year to<br />

the contra asset account for the purpose of properly recording the fair market value of tangible<br />

assets.<br />

31) Prentice Company purchased a depreciable asset for $200,000. The estimated salvage value is<br />

$20,000, and the estimated useful life is 10 years. The straight-line method will be used for<br />

depreciation. What is the depreciation base of this asset?<br />

A. $180,000<br />

B. $18,000<br />

C. $20,000


D. $200,000<br />

32) Pine Company purchased a depreciable asset for $360,000. The estimated salvage value is<br />

$24,000, and the estimated useful life is 8 years. The double-declining balance method will be used<br />

for depreciation. What is the depreciation expense for the second year on this asset?<br />

A. $67,500<br />

B. $42,000<br />

C. $63,000<br />

D. $90,000<br />

33) Bigbie Company purchased a depreciable asset for $600,000. The estimated salvage value is<br />

$30,000, and the estimated useful life is 10,000 hours. Bigbie used the asset for 1,100 hours in the<br />

current year. The activity method will be used for depreciation. What is the depreciation expense<br />

on this asset?<br />

A. $66,000<br />

B. $57,000<br />

C. $62,700<br />

D. $570,000<br />

34) The cost of purchasing patent rights for a product that might otherwise have seriously<br />

competed with one of the purchaser's patented products should be<br />

A. added to factory overhead and allocated to production of the purchaser's product.<br />

B. amortized over the remaining estimated life of the original patent covering the product<br />

whose market would have been impaired by competition from the newly patented product.<br />

C. charged off in the current period.<br />

D. amortized over the legal life of the purchased patent.<br />

35) Riser Corporation was granted a patent on a product on January 1, 1998. To protect its patent,<br />

the corporation purchased on January 1, 2007 a patent on a competing product which was<br />

originally issued on January 10, 2003. Because of its unique plant, Riser Corporation does NOT feel<br />

the competing patent can be used in producing a product. The cost of the competing patent should<br />

be<br />

A. amortized over a maximum period of 11 years.<br />

B. expensed in 2007.<br />

C. amortized over a maximum period of 20 years.<br />

D. amortized over a maximum period of 16 years.<br />

36) Which of the following methods of amortization is normally used for intangible assets?<br />

A. Units of production<br />

B. Double-declining-balance<br />

C. Sum-of-the-years'-digits<br />

D. Straight-line


37) General Products Company bought Special Products Division in 2006 and appropriately<br />

booked $250,000 of goodwill related to the purchase. On December 31, 2007, the fair value of<br />

Special Products Division is $2,000,000 and it is carried on General Product’s books for a total of<br />

$1,700,000, including the goodwill. An analysis of Special Products Division’s assets indicates that<br />

goodwill of $200,000 exists on December 31, 2007. What goodwill impairment should be recognized<br />

by General Products in 2007?<br />

A. $50,000.<br />

B. $300,000.<br />

C. $0.<br />

D. $200,000.<br />

38) Twilight Corporation acquired End-of-the-World Products on January 1, 2008 for $2,000,000,<br />

and recorded goodwill of $375,000 as a result of that purchase. At December 31, 2008, the End-ofthe-World<br />

Products Division had a fair value of $1,700,000. The net identifiable assets of the<br />

Division (excluding goodwill) had a fair value of $1,450,000 at that time. What amount of loss on<br />

impairment of goodwill should Twilight record in 2008?<br />

A. $175,000<br />

B. $300,000<br />

C. $ -0-<br />

D. $125,000<br />

39) Fleming Corporation acquired Out-of-Sight Products on January 1, 2008 for $4,000,000, and<br />

recorded goodwill of $750,000 as a result of that purchase. At December 31, 2008, the Out-of-Sight<br />

Products Division had a fair value of $3,400,000. The net identifiable assets of the Division<br />

(excluding goodwill) had a fair value of $2,900,000 at that time. What amount of loss on impairment<br />

of goodwill should Fleming record in 2008?<br />

A. $350,000<br />

B. $600,000<br />

C. $ -0-<br />

D. $250,000<br />

40) When a patent is amortized, the credit is usually made to<br />

A. a Deferred Credit account.<br />

B. an expense account.<br />

C. the Patent account.<br />

D. an Accumulated Amortization account.<br />

41) The reason goodwill is sometimes referred to as a master valuation account is because<br />

A. the value of a business is computed without consideration of goodwill and then goodwill<br />

is added to arrive at a master valuation.<br />

B. it is the only account in the financial statements that is based on value, all other accounts<br />

are recorded at an amount other than their value.<br />

C. it represents the purchase price of a business that is about to be sold.


D. it is the difference between the fair market value of the net tangible and identifiable<br />

intangible assets as compared with the purchase price of the acquired business.<br />

42) Easton Company and Lofton Company were combined in a purchase transaction. Easton was<br />

able to acquire Lofton at a bargain price. The sum of the market or appraised values of identifiable<br />

assets acquired less the fair value of liabilities assumed exceeded the cost to Easton. After revaluing<br />

noncurrent assets to zero, there was still some "negative goodwill." Proper accounting treatment by<br />

Easton is to report the amount as<br />

A. part of current income in the year of combination.<br />

B. a deferred credit and amortize it.<br />

C. an extraordinary gain.<br />

D. paid-in capital.<br />

43) Stock dividends distributable should be classified on the<br />

A. balance sheet as an asset.<br />

B. balance sheet as a liability.<br />

C. income statement as an expense.<br />

D. balance sheet as an item of stockholders' equity.<br />

44) Which of the following statements is false?<br />

A. Cash dividends should be recorded as a liability when they are declared by the board of<br />

directors.<br />

B. Under the cash basis method, warranty costs are charged to expense as they are paid.<br />

C. A company may exclude a short-term obligation from current liabilities if the firm<br />

intends to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis and demonstrates an ability to complete the<br />

refinancing.<br />

D. FICA taxes withheld from employees' payroll checks should never be recorded as a<br />

liability since the employer will eventually remit the amounts withheld to the appropriate taxing<br />

authority.<br />

45) Which of the following items is a current liability?<br />

A. Bonds due in three years.<br />

B. Bonds (for which there is an adequate appropriation of retained earnings) due in eleven<br />

months.<br />

C. Bonds (for which there is an adequate sinking fund properly classified as a long-term<br />

investment) due in three months.<br />

D. Bonds to be refunded when due in eight months, there being no doubt about the<br />

marketability of the refunding issue.<br />

46) Simson Company has 35 employees who work 8-hour days and are paid hourly. On January 1,<br />

2006 the company began a program of granting its employees 10 days of paid vacation each year.<br />

Vacation days earned in 2006 may first be taken on January 1, 2007. Information relative to these<br />

employees is as follows:<br />

Year Hourly Wages Vacation Days Earned by Each Employee Vacation Dayse Used<br />

by Each Employee<br />

2006 $28.50 10 0


2007 $27.00 10 8<br />

2008 $28.50 10 10<br />

What is the amount of expense relative to compensated absences that should be reported on<br />

Simson’s income statement for 2006?<br />

A. $68,880.<br />

B. $75,600.<br />

C. $0.<br />

D. $72,240.<br />

47) A company offers a cash rebate of $1 on each $4 package of batteries sold during 2007.<br />

Historically, 10% of customers mail in the rebate form. During 2007, 6,000,000 packages of<br />

batteries are sold, and 210,000 $1 rebates are mailed to customers. What is the rebate expense and<br />

liability, respectively, shown on the 2007 financial statements dated December 31?<br />

A. $600,000; $390,000<br />

B. $390,000; $390,000<br />

C. $600,000; $600,000<br />

D. $210,000; $390,000<br />

48) A company offers a cash rebate of $1 on each $4 package of light bulbs sold during 2007.<br />

Historically, 10% of customers mail in the rebate form. During 2007, 4,000,000 packages of light<br />

bulbs are sold, and 140,000 $1 rebates are mailed to customers. What is the rebate expense and<br />

liability, respectively, shown on the 2007 financial statements dated December 31?<br />

A. $400,000; $260,000<br />

B. $260,000; $260,000<br />

C. $400,000; $400,000<br />

D. $140,000; $260,000<br />

49) A contingency can be accrued when<br />

A. an asset may have been impaired.<br />

B. the amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated and it is probable that an asset has<br />

been impaired or a liability incurred.<br />

C. it is certain that funds are available to settle the disputed amount.<br />

D. it is probable that an asset has been impaired or a liability incurred even though the<br />

amount of the loss cannot be reasonably estimated.<br />

50) Mark Ward is a farmer who owns land which borders on the right-of-way of the Northern<br />

Railroad. On August 10, 2007, due to the admitted negligence of the Railroad, hay on the farm was<br />

set on fire and burned. Ward had had a dispute with the Railroad for several years concerning the<br />

ownership of a small parcel of land. The representative of the Railroad has offered to assign any<br />

rights which the Railroad may have in the land to Ward in exchange for a release of his right to<br />

reimbursement for the loss he has sustained from the fire. Ward appears inclined to accept the<br />

Railroad's offer. The Railroad's 2007 financial statements should include the following related to<br />

the incident:<br />

A. recognition of a loss only.


B. recognition of a loss and creation of a liability for the value of the land.<br />

C. creation of a liability only.<br />

D. disclosure in note form only.<br />

51) Which of the following sets of conditions would give rise to the accrual of a contingency under<br />

current generally accepted accounting principles?<br />

A. Amount of loss is reasonably estimable and occurrence of event is probable.<br />

B. Amount of loss is reasonably estimable and event occurs infrequently.<br />

C. Event is unusual in nature and occurrence of event is probable.<br />

D. Event is unusual in nature and event occurs infrequently.<br />

52) If bonds are issued initially at a premium and the effective-interest method of amortization is<br />

used, interest expense in the earlier years will be<br />

A. greater than the amount of the interest payments.<br />

B. greater than if the straight-line method were used.<br />

C. the same as if the straight-line method were used.<br />

D. less than if the straight-line method were used.<br />

53) An example of an item which is NOT a liability is<br />

A. advances from customers on contracts.<br />

B. dividends payable in stock.<br />

C. accrued estimated warranty costs.<br />

D. the portion of long-term debt due within one year.<br />

54) The covenants and other terms of the agreement between the issuer of bonds and the lender are<br />

set forth in the<br />

A. bond debenture.<br />

B. bond indenture.<br />

C. registered bond.<br />

D. bond coupon.<br />

55) Which of the following is a correct statement of one of the capitalization criteria?<br />

A. The lease contains a purchase option.<br />

B. The lease transfers ownership of the property to the lessor.<br />

C. The lease term is equal to or more than 75% of the estimated economic life of the leased<br />

property.<br />

D. The minimum lease payments (excluding executory costs) equal or exceed 90% of the<br />

fair value of the leased property.<br />

56) Which of the following best describes current practice in accounting for leases?<br />

A. Leases similar to installment purchases are capitalized.


B. Leases are NOT capitalized.<br />

C. All long-term leases are capitalized.<br />

D. All leases are capitalized.<br />

57) While only certain leases are currently accounted for as a sale or purchase, there is theoretic<br />

justification for considering all leases to be sales or purchases. The principal reason that supports<br />

this idea is that<br />

A. at the end of the lease the property usually can be purchased by the lessee.<br />

B. [Answer Text]all leases are generally for the economic life of the property and the<br />

residual value of the property at the end of the lease is minimal.<br />

C. a lease reflects the purchase or sale of a quantifiable right to the use of property.<br />

D. during the life of the lease the lessee can effectively treat the property as if it were owned<br />

by the lessee.<br />

58) The amount to be recorded as the cost of an asset under capital lease is equal to the<br />

A. present value of the minimum lease payments or the fair value of the asset, whichever is<br />

lower.<br />

B. carrying value of the asset on the lessor's books.<br />

C. present value of the minimum lease payments plus the present value of any<br />

unguaranteed residual value.<br />

D. present value of the minimum lease payments.<br />

59) In the earlier years of a lease, from the lessee's perspective, the use of the<br />

A. capital method will cause debt to increase, compared to the operating method.<br />

B. operating method will cause debt to increase, compared to the capital method.<br />

C. operating method will cause income to decrease, compared to the capital method.<br />

D. capital method will enable the lessee to report higher income, compared to the operating<br />

method.<br />

60) If the residual value of a leased asset is guaranteed by a third party<br />

A. the third party is also liable for any lease payments NOT paid by the lessee.<br />

B. it is treated by the lessee as an additional payment and by the lessor as realized at the<br />

end of the lease term.<br />

C. the net investment to be recovered by the lessor is reduced.<br />

D. it is treated by the lessee as no residual value.

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