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KJV Questions and Answers - Far Eastern Bible College

KJV Questions and Answers - Far Eastern Bible College

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the LORD” in verse 6. Although the pronoun “them” in verse 7 is in themasculine, <strong>and</strong> the “words” in verse 6 feminine, there is no irregularity inHebrew grammar for “masculine suffixes (especially in the plural) are notinfrequently used to refer to feminine substantives” (Gesenius, HebrewGrammar, 440). Waltke <strong>and</strong> O’Connor say the same, “The masculinepronoun [i.e. ‘them,’ v7] is often used for a feminine antecedent [i.e.‘words,’ v6]” (Biblical Hebrew Syntax, 302).Anti-<strong>KJV</strong>ists, however, deny that verse 7 refers to the “words” ofverse 6. They say that the words “them” in verse 7 refer to the “poor” <strong>and</strong>“needy” of verse 5. While this is possible, it is preferable <strong>and</strong> only naturalto read verse 7 in connection with its nearest antecedent, which is verse 6,referring to the “words of the LORD.”Against those who say that Ps 12:7 refers to the preservation ofGod’s people <strong>and</strong> not God’s words, Peter W Van Kleeck in his book—Fundamentalism’s Folly?—under the section, “The Churchly Tradition’sRendering of Psalm 12:7,” wrote, “The evidence shows that the churchlytradition allows ‘them’ the breadth to include both people <strong>and</strong> God’swords in its interpretation. … the modern versions elect to overlook theReformation’s Hebrew basis for translation in Psalm 12:6-7; <strong>and</strong> thechurchly tradition is censored in the new versions … by not including atranslation <strong>and</strong> interpretation that is broad enough to include bothoppressed people <strong>and</strong> God’s words.”Psalm 12 does indeed teach God’s preservation of His people (vv1-5), but it also teaches God’s preservation of His words (vv6-7). God isassuring His people that His preservation of them is as sure <strong>and</strong> secure asHis preservation of His very own words.(29) Did the Lord Jesus <strong>and</strong> the Apostles quote from theSeptuagint (Greek version of the OT)?We cannot be absolutely certain that Jesus made use of <strong>and</strong> quotedfrom the Septuagint. There is some doubt that the Septuagint even existedduring the time of Christ. Furthermore, there is not one instance in theScriptures where we find Jesus or the Apostles saying that they havequoted from the Septuagint. As a matter of fact, there are many NTquotations of the OT that do not agree with the Septuagint. It is better toassume that Jesus <strong>and</strong> the Apostles did their own direct translation of theHebrew text into Greek.QUESTIONS ABOUT INSPIRATION AND PRESERVATION27

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