Science Focus 2 - Chapter Tests - Pearson Australia Media Resources

Science Focus 2 TEST 

Chapter 1: Science skills 

Name: _______________________ Class: __________ Date: _______ 

Instructions: Write answers in the right-hand column. Score: ___________ / 54 marks 

Section A − Multiple choice (14 marks) 

1 Which statement best describes scientists? 

A Scientists are people who wear white coats and thick glasses. 

B Scientists are people who work in laboratories. 

C Scientists investigate new substances made by mixing different chemicals. 

D Scientists ask ‘What, why and how?’ and use written resources and 

experiments to find answers. 

2 A micrometer is 

A a very accurate watch or timer used to measure small time intervals. 

B an electrical meter used to measure tiny electric currents. 

C a device that measures the thickness of objects to within a fraction of a 

millimetre. 

D a miniature test tube. 

3 The reading on the scale below is 

A 0.56 

B 0.65 

C 5.56 

D 5.65 

© Pearson Education Australia (a division of Pearson Australia Group Pty Ltd) 2005. 

This page from the Science Focus 2 Teacher’s Resource may be photocopied for classroom use. 

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4 A series of experiments investigating one topic is called 

A observation. 

B research. 

C explanation. 

D hypothesis. 

5 A Year 8 student is designing an experiment to test the effect of variables when 

cooking a pizza. 

Which of the following is the least logical variable for this experiment? 

A The size of each pizza base. 

B The length of time the pizza is in the oven. 

C The day of the week on which the experiment is performed. 

D The temperature of the oven. 

6 Which statement about observations is correct? 

A Observations are always quantitative. 

B Observations are things you see. 

C Observations involve some guesswork. 

D Observations may be made with any of the five senses. 

7 The match below is approximately 

A 4.0 cm long. 

B 4.2 cm long. 

C 4.4 cm long. 

D 4.5 cm long. 



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8 Which is the odd one out? 

A Mistake. 

B Parallax error. 

C Human reaction time. 

D Instrument error. 

9 A measurement thought to be between 20 and 30 mm may be written as 

A 15 ± 5 mm. 

B 25 ± 5 mm. 

C 20 ± 10 mm. 

D 30 ± 10 mm. 

10 A bibliography is 

A a list of resources used to gather information. 

B the study of information in the Bible. 

C a diagram in a scientific report. 

D a scientific reference book. 

11 When plotting a graph of results, the independent variable 

A should be plotted on the horizontal axis. 

B should be plotted on the vertical axis. 

C may be plotted on either the horizontal or vertical axis. 

D is the heading for the graph. 

12 In the graph below, as t increases, then B 

A doubles. 

B more than doubles. 

C increases then levels out. 

D decreases. 



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13 Which of the following is not a prefix? 

A Kilo. 

B Centi. 

C Joules. 

D Nano. 

14 A megagram is equal to 

A a kilogram. 

B 1 tonne. 

C one-thousandth of a gram. 

D one-millionth of a gram. 

Section B − Written answers (40 marks) 

1 Identify four well-known inventions. 

2 Define the two terms: 

a qualitative observation. 

b quantitative observation. 

3 Identify four possible variables in an 

experiment that tests the effect of a 

Bunsen burner flame on a beaker 

containing water. 



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4 Brad uses a bread-making machine 

every morning, to bake a loaf of bread 

for his family’s breakfast. There are 

only three ingredients specified on the 

bread mix packet: 

yeast (1.5 teaspoons), bread mix (3 

cups) and water (1 cup). He uses the 

built-in timer to control how long the 

bread is cooked. 

a List the variables in Brad’s bread 

making. 

b Explain how Brad could test the 

effect of slightly changing the 

amount of yeast and water, on the 

final product. 

5 Identify two examples of estimates. 

6 a Illustrate the position of an eye so 

the correct measurement may be 

read below. 

b What is the correct reading? 

7 Identify examples of 

a an instrument error. 

b a human reaction time error. 



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8 Calculate the average number of goals 

per game scored by a player if she 

scored 3, 6, 2, 4 and 15 goals in five 

games. 

9 Identify the main features of a scientific 

report. 

10 Recall 

a how many litres are in a gigalitre. 

b what a micrometre is. 



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11 The graph below shows the temperature 

of a room after a heater has been 

operating for a given time. 

a Calculate the temperature of the 

room when you turned on the 

heater. 

b Calculate the temperature in the 

room after the heater had been on 

for 15 minutes. 

c Calculate how long the heater 

had been on when the 

temperature was 20°C. 

d Use the graph to predict the 

room temperature after 1 hour. 



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12 a Plot the following grass growth 

data on the grid provided. 

Day 

Height (mm) 

0 

0 

5 

3 

10 

7 

15 

15 

20 

32 

25 

51 

30 

30 

b Draw a line of best fit through 

your points to show any pattern 

that exists. 

c Predict when the grass was 

mown. 



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Chapter 2: Atoms 




1 Which of the following is an element? 

A Carbon. 

B Paper. 

C Plastic. 

D Sugar. 

2 The chemical symbol for sodium is 

A S 

B So 

C Na 

D No 

3 An element is a 

A chemical obtained from mineral ore. 

B pure substance made up of only one type of atom. 

C group of different atoms bonded together. 

D synthetic substance created in the laboratory. 

4 The symbol K denotes 

A copper. 

B cobalt. 

C polonium. 

D potassium. 

5 Pure water is made up of numerous 

A atoms. 

B spheres. 

C molecules. 

D compounds. 



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6 Quartz has the chemical formula SiO2 . This means that in quartz 

A for every atom of silicon, there are 2 atoms of oxygen. 

B for every atom of oxygen, there are 2 atoms of silicon. 

C silicon and oxygen form groups, containing two of each type of atom. 

D one atom of silicon bonds with one atom of oxygen, to make a group 

containing two atoms. 

7 Which of the following is a chemical change? 

A Sawdust is produced from wood being cut by a power saw. 

B Water freezes to form ice. 

C Fireworks explode in a colourful display. 

D Juice is obtained from an orange. 

8 A combination reaction is best described as one in which 

A a substance is broken down to form two or more different substances. 

B a new substance is formed by the combination of two or more substances. 

C an insoluble, sometimes colourful, solid is formed from two liquids. 

D a substance reacts with oxygen. 

9 A chemical reaction may be sped up by 

A using more concentrated reactants. 

B heating the reactants. 

C using more finely ground reactants. 

D all of the above. 

10 A catalyst 

A speeds up a chemical reaction without actually combining with reactants. 

B dissolves chemicals that water is unable to. 

C is one of the ‘ingredients’ in a chemical reaction. 

D is a large molecule that is broken down by a smaller one. 

11 In the chemical reaction: iron + sulfur → iron sulfide 

A iron and sulfur are products. 

B iron sulfide is the product. 

C iron, sulfur and iron sulfide are products. 

D sulfide is the product. 



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12 Which of the following famous scientists is not known for their theory of atomic 

structure? 

A Dalton. 

B Thomson. 

C Rutherford. 

D Newton. 

13 An atom consists of 

A a nucleus containing neutrons and protons, surrounded by fast-moving 

electrons. 

B central neutrons, surrounded by fast-moving electrons and protons. 

C central electrons, surrounded by fast-moving protons. 

D a mixture of protons and electrons spread evenly in a neutral ‘dough’. 

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14 An atom of 9F 

contains 

A 19 protons and 9 electrons. 

B 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons. 

C 10 protons, 9 neutrons and 9 electrons. 

D 9 protons, 19 neutrons and 10 electrons. 

15 A phosphorus atom has an atomic number of 15. How many electrons does it 

have in its third (outermost) shell? 

A 0 

B 2 

C 5 

D 8 



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1 Define each of the following. 

a Element. 

b Atom. 

c Molecule. 

d Compound. 

e Mixture. 

2 a Sketch a molecule of NH 3 . 

b Identify the following formula. 

3 Identify and name the elements whose 

symbols are given below. 

a Al 

b Ca 

c Au 

d He 

e O 

f Mg 

g Kr 

h Pb 

i S 

j Zn 



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4 Identify the symbol for each of the 

following. 

a Hydrogen. 

b Chlorine. 

c Silver. 

d Neon. 

e Europium. 

f Boron. 

g Iodine. 

h Iron. 

i Tin. 

j Carbon. 

5 Identify four examples of a physical 

change. 

6 Identify four examples of a chemical 

change. 

7 Classify each reaction below as one of 

the following: 

combination, decomposition, 

precipitation, combustion 

a Methane burns in a Bunsen 

burner. 

b Light breaks down silver chloride 

to form silver and chlorine. 

c A solid forms when two liquids 

are mixed. 

d Copper reacts with oxygen to 

form copper oxide. 



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8 Complete each of the following 

chemical reactions. 

a Lead nitrate + potassium iodide 

→ 

lead iodide + ________ 

________ 

b Zinc + copper chloride → 

________ ________ + ________ 

c Iron + chlorine → ________ 

________ 

9 Define each of the following in relation 

to a chemical reaction. 

a (s) 

b (l) 

c (g) 

d (aq) 

10 Define an enzyme. 2 

11 Identify three ways a chemical reaction 

may be sped up. 

12 Clarify by drawing a diagram the parts 

of an atom of lithium which has 3 

protons, 4 neutrons and 3 electrons. 

Show the charge (if any) on each type 

of particle. 



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13 Copper may be denoted by 29 Cu 

Calculate how many of each of the 

following are in one atom of copper. 

a Neutrons. 

b Electrons. 

c Protons. 

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14 Yttrium may be denoted by 39 Y 

Calculate the 

a mass number of yttrium. 

b atomic number of yttrium. 

15 An atom of oxygen contains 8 electrons. 

Calculate the number of electrons in 

the 

a innermost shell of an atom of 

oxygen. 

b outer shell of an atom of oxygen. 

. 

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Chapter 3: Microbes 




1 The scientifically correct name for ‘germs’ is 

A bugs. 

B disease. 

C flu. 

D microbes. 

2 A scientist who studies microorganisms is known as a 

A microbiologist. 

B biologist. 

C microgeologist. 

D doctor. 

3 Which of the following microbes may be seen with the naked eye? 

A Viruses. 

B Bacteria. 

C Fungi. 

D Protozoa. 

4 What instrument magnifies objects up to 100 000 times? 

A Light microscope. 

B Electron microscope. 

C Magnifying glass. 

D Digital camera. 

5 Bacteria are used to make 

A yogurt. 

B wine. 

C bread. 

D butter. 



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6 The common mushroom is an example of a 

A virus. 

B bacterium. 

C fungus. 

D plant. 

7 The tiny hairs used by some protists to move around are called 

A flagella. 

B cilia. 

C pseudopod. 

D hair. 

8 AIDS is caused by a 

A virus. 

B bacterium. 

C fungus. 

D protist. 

9 Which fungi do we use to make food and drink such as bread, cereals, wine and 

beer? 

A Mould. 

B Mushrooms. 

C Flour. 

D Yeast. 

10 Bacteria and protists reproduce by cell division or 

A binary fusion. 

B cellular changes. 

C primary fission. 

D binary fission. 



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11 Some bacteria can undergo binary fission in as little as 20 minutes, and in seven 

hours will become a colony of over 

A 100 

B 10 000 

C 100 000 

D 1 000 000 

12 Bacteria grow and reproduce very rapidly only when the conditions are right. 

These conditions are 

A warm and dry. 

B cold and dry. 

C warm and moist. 

D cold and moist. 

13 Identify the chemicals or drugs that kill bacteria. 

A Biotics. 

B Antibiotics. 

C Aspirin. 

D Antifungicides. 

14 The capsule called a sporangium holds 

A spores. 

B eggs. 

C pollen. 

D sporangs. 

15 Viruses are only able to reproduce inside a 

A human cell. 

B plant cell. 

C bacterium. 

D host cell. 



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16 These two microbe groups are more foe than friend. 

A Fungi and protists. 

B Viruses and bacteria. 

C Bacteria and fungi. 

D Protists and viruses. 

17 Bacteria carried by fleas caused the death of one quarter of the population of 

Europe in the 1300s. This period is called 

A the Black Years. 

B the Black Death. 

C the Black Flea Deaths. 

D the Black European Plague. 

18 The fungal disease tinea is also known as 

A athlete’s foot. 

B toe jam. 

C ring worm. 

D thrush. 

19 In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered the mould that produces 

A aspirin. 

B insulin. 

C penicillin. 

D bactrum. 

20 The process whereby yeast feeds on the sugar (glucose) in fruit, vegetables or 

cereal grains to produce carbon dioxide gas is called 

A glucosis. 

B fermentation. 

C aerobic respiration. 

D binary fission. 



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1 Identify the microbes that can be seen 

with a 

a light microscope. 

b electron microscope. 

2 Identify the coarse focus, base, stage, 

eye piece, objective lens and mirror on 

the following diagram of a microscope. 

3 Classify each of the following 

statements as true or false 

a 1 centimetre = 0.01 metre 

b 1 nanometre can be written as 1 

mm. 

c Fungi can only be seen with a 

microscope. 

d An electron microscope is needed 

to see viruses. 

e Bacteria are about 1 micrometre 

in size. 

4 The human body is home to many 

bacteria. Identify three areas of the 

body where they may be found. 



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5 Describe how fungi feed and what 

function they play in the natural cycles 

of the environment. 

6 a Explain why the protist euglena 

is plant-like. 

b Describe how euglena can move 

in water. 

7 Identify each type of bacteria shown by 

their shape using the following labels. 

a Cocci. 

b Bacilli. 

c Spirilla. 

8 Label the following structure of a virus. 



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9 Explain why care must be taken when 

performing experiments with bacteria or 

fungi. 

10 Explain why you can become sick very 

quickly when even a single bacterium 

invades your body. 

11 Identify the three conditions needed by 

bacteria to reproduce. 

12 Draw a diagram to show how bacteria 

reproduce. 

13 Define an antibiotic. 2 

14 Label the diagram of a fungus to show 

the following structures: 

spores, sporangium, hyphae 



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15 Summarise how a virus reproduces. 6 

16 Explain how vaccinations work. 6 

17 Explain why decomposition by bacteria 

is not always a good thing when it 

comes to your food. 

18 Identify one place where 

decomposition by bacteria is a good 

thing. 

19 Some bacteria can destroy food while 

others are used to make it. Identify 

three foods that are made using bacteria. 

20 Identify three foods that use the fungus 

yeast in their production. 

21 Contrast aerobic and anaerobic 

respiration. 



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22 a Write a word equation for 

fermentation. 

b Both wine and champagne are 

produced by fermentation. 

Explain why wine is flat while 

champagne is bubbly. 



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Chapter 4: Body systems 




1 Which of the following is not a type of tooth? 

A Molar. 

B Pre-molar. 

C Canine. 

D Scissor. 

2 The crown of a tooth is the 

A tip. 

B space in the jaw in which the tooth sits. 

C part of the tooth above the gum. 

D inner cavity of the tooth. 

3 Which of the following is the odd one out? 

A Digestive tract. 

B Gut. 

C Alimentary canal. 

D Kidney. 

4 How much fluid does the digestive system produce each day? 

A 1 L 

B 2 L 

C 8 L 

D 16 L 

5 Peristalsis is 

A the chewing of food in the mouth. 

B the contraction and relaxation of muscles that moves food through the 

alimentary canal. 

C the absorption of broken-down food into the bloodstream. 

D the clumping together of faeces in the large intestine. 



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6 Which of the following is/are not found in the digestive system? 

A Perpoofer valve. 

B Sphincters. 

C Villi. 

D Chyme. 

7 The liver may be described as 

A a J-shaped organ. 

B a chemical factory. 

C the smallest digestive organ. 

D the longest organ. 

8 The scientific name for released digestive gases is 

A sulfur dioxide. 

B flatus. 

C fartus. 

D odourus unpleasantus. 

9 When matter is moved more slowly than usual through the digestive system, 

which of the following is more likely to occur? 

A Diarrhoea. 

B Heartburn. 

C Constipation. 

D Vomiting. 

10 The tiny filtration units in your kidneys are called 

A nephrons. 

B filtrons. 

C urinators. 

D ureters. 

11 Dialysis is the medical term for 

A a kidney transplant. 

B kidney failure. 

C filtering of blood by a machine. 

D a build-up of poisonous wastes in the blood. 



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12 Kidney stones can cause extreme pain. A recently developed method to 

eliminate kidney stones uses 

A ultrasound. 

B lasers. 

C chemicals. 

D surgery. 

13 The function of plasma is to 

A fight infection. 

B carry carbon dioxide. 

C carry the red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets around the body. 

D determine blood type. 

14 The pulmonary vein carries 

A deoxygenated blood to the lungs. 

B newly oxygenated blood to the lungs. 

C deoxygenated blood to the rest of the body (not the lungs). 

D newly oxygenated blood to the heart. 

15 Which of the following refers to a lower heart chamber? 

A Atrium. 

B Septum. 

C Ventricle. 

D Valve. 

16 Which of the following is closest to a normal ECG? 

A 

B 

C 

D 



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17 An artery may become narrowed due to a build-up of 

A dead blood cells. 

B cholesterol. 

C angina. 

D polyunsaturates. 

18 What two recent scientific developments have helped heart sufferers? 

A Ultrasonic treatment. 

B Chemicals to lower cholesterol. 

C Heart valves and pacemakers. 

D Polyunsaturates. 

19 What fraction of the human body is made up of water? 

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10 

B 

C 

D 

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20 Which of the following shows the approximate percentages of three major gases 

in inhaled air? 

A 50% nitrogen, 49% oxygen, 1% carbon dioxide. 

B 79% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide. 

C 79% nitrogen, 14% oxygen, 6% carbon dioxide. 

D 59% nitrogen, 41% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide. 

21 Which of the following is not a property of alveoli? 

A Their cell walls are only one cell thick. 

B They lie close to the walls of capillaries. 

C They have a dry surface to allow efficient diffusion. 

D They are shaped to give maximum surface area. 



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22 Most oxygen is transported in the bloodstream 

A bound to haemoglobin. 

B as gaseous oxygen molecules. 

C bound to platelets. 

D as dissolved carbon dioxide molecules and hydrogen carbonate ions. 

23 We need fibre because 

A it contains large amounts of vitamins and minerals. 

B it provides bulk which helps move substances through the digestive system. 

C it is the major source of energy in foods. 

D it is used for growth and repair. 

24 Pasta, bread and rice are foods that are all rich in 

A carbohydrates. 

B proteins. 

C fats. 

D vitamin C. 

25 Which of the following diseases is caused by a lack of vitamins? 

A Hepatitis C. 

B AIDS. 

C Scurvy. 

D Polio. 

26 Which two of the following are minerals? 

A Calcium. 

B Potassium. 

C Folic acid. 

D Riboflavin. 

27 From which one of the following categories should you have most serves each 

day for a healthy diet? 

A Vegetables. 

B Meat and meat alternatives. 

C Breads and cereals. 

D Milk and milk products. 



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28 Which food item is high in kilojoules and high in calcium? 

A Ice-cream. 

B Can of soft drink. 

C Hamburger. 

D Margarine. 

29 Obesity 

A is an eating disorder in which sufferers unrealistically perceive they need to 

lose weight. 

B involves binge eating followed by purging. 

C is a condition in which a person is more than 24 per cent overweight. 

D is a town where a large number of OBE recipients reside. 

30 Respiration is a chemical reaction which 

A occurs only in the body cells of animals. 

B always has oxygen as a reactant. 

C involves a sequence of reactions. 

D is endothermic (absorbs energy). 


1 Identify the tooth type for the function 

of 

a biting. 

b grinding. 

c cutting. 



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2 Label the tooth diagram below with the 

tooth type and function where indicated. 

3 Explain how acid is created in the 

mouth, and what can it cause. 

4 Identify the parts of the digestive 

system on the following diagram. 



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5 Identify the location in the digestive 

system where 

a stools form. 

b insulin is produced. 

c nutrients pass through villi. 

d considerable heat energy is 

produced. 

e saliva produced. 

f peristalsis occurs. 

g you find hydrochloric acid. 

h digestion begins. 

6 a Identify the end-product of 

digestion that provides energy to 

cells. 

b How is this substance transported 

around the body? 

c Give two ways this end-product 

is stored in the body. 

7 Explain 

a a stomach ulcer. 

b a possible cause of cirrhosis. 

8 Identify two waste products produced 

by cells in your body. 

9 Classify the following in the order in 

which fluid flows, starting with the first 

stage. 

bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter. 



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10 Explain the main function of 

a red blood cells. 

b white blood cells. 

c platelets. 

d antigens. 

11 Assess whether a person with type B+ 

blood could safely 

a donate blood to a person with 

type B− blood. 

b donate to a person with type O+ 

blood. 

c receive blood from a donor with 

type O+ blood. 

12 Label the heart diagram below. 

13 Identify the type of blood tubes that 

a are one cell thick. 

b carry blood at low pressure. 

c have the thickest outer layer. 

14 Describe the role of the lungs in the 

circulatory system. 



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15 Identify four structures which air 

passes through on its journey from the 

atmosphere to the alveoli in your lungs. 



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16 The questions that follow refer to the 

diagram below of the human respiratory 

system. 

Identify the structure shown (use the 

numbers 1 to 8 to answer) that 

a prevents food from entering the 

trachea. 

b contracts and flattens when you 

breathe in. 

c filters, warms and humidifies air. 

d contracts to raise the rib cage 

when you breathe in. 

e is the site of gaseous exchange 

between the lungs and the 

bloodstream. 

f is a bronchus. 



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17 Describe what happens to each of the 

following structures during expiration 

(breathing out). 

a Ribs (raised or lowered?). 

b Diaphragm (flattens or is domeshaped?) 

c Pressure in the chest cavity 

(increases or decreases?). 

d Intercostal muscles (contract or 

relax?). 

18 Identify five types of nutrients, and 

give an example of a food rich in each 

one. 

19 Identify the part of food or nutrient that 

a assists chemical reactions in the 

body. 

b repairs body tissue. 

c is required in small amounts for 

good health. 

d provides a rich source of energy. 

20 Classify the following in order from 

least required each day to most required 

each day for a healthy diet. 

fruits, indulgence items, milk and milk 

products, breads and cereals, 

vegetables, meat and alternatives. 

21 a Describe the process of aerobic 

respiration by writing a chemical 

equation. 

b State whether the reaction is 

exothermic or endothermic. 

c Define the process of aerobic 

respiration. 



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22 Describe the function of an enzyme. 2 

23 Identify 

a the two products of anaerobic 

respiration in yeast cells. 

b two industrial uses of the 

anaerobic respiration reaction in 

yeast cells. 

c the product of anaerobic 

respiration in human muscle 

cells. 

24 Recall two reasons why a person at rest 

would need energy. 



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Chapter 5: Electricity 




1 A neutral object is one that contains 

A no charges. 

B an equal number of positive and negative charges. 

C only neutrons. 

D an excess of one type of charge. 

2 Which of the following will attract each other? 

A Two positive charges. 

B Two negative charges. 

C A neutral charge and a positive charge. 

D None of the above. 

3 A large device used to demonstrate the effects of static electricity is the 

A Electrostatic precipitator. 

B Vandenburg ioniser. 

C Van de Graaff generator. 

D Steffi Graf imitator. 

4 A dangerous static charge may build up on an aircraft due to 

A charges in the atmosphere being attracted to the aircraft’s metallic body. 

B chemical reactions involving aircraft exhaust gases. 

C movement of air against the outside of the aircraft. 

D electrical discharges from the instrument panel. 

5 Lightning occurs when 

A charge flows between clouds. 

B charge flows between a cloud and the ground. 

C charge flows from one part of a cloud to another part of the same cloud. 

D all of the above. 



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6 Lines representing electric fields are 

A always evenly spaced. 

B always curved. 

C closer together near charges. 

D drawn with arrows showing the direction a negative charge would move if 

free to do so. 

7 Voltage is the 

A number of charges passing a point in a circuit every second. 

B measure of the energy given to or lost by moving charges. 

C number of charges in a cell. 

D time taken for a charge to move around a circuit once. 

8 Which circuit below shows how to measure voltage and current for a single 

globe in a circuit? 

9 A battery is 

A a group of cells. 

B another name for a single cell. 

C a collection of objects in a circuit. 

D one of the ends of a cell or the terminals of a power supply. 

10 Which of the following is a good conductor? 

A Plastic. 

B Copper. 

C Water. 

D Air. 

11 In an electric circuit, resistance is 

A a connection terminal that is difficult to unscrew or tighten. 

B something which does not allow any charge to flow. 

C a component connected the wrong way around. 

D something that restricts the flow of charge, transferring energy in the 

process. 



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12 A photovoltaic cell is a 

A solar cell. 

B technical term for a light bulb. 

C high voltage source. 

D circuit symbol used to denote a voltage source such as a battery or cell. 

13 The circuit below contains 

A 3 globes in parallel. 

B 3 globes in series. 

C globe in series with 2 globes in parallel. 

D 2 globes in parallel with one globe in series. 

14 When a globe is removed from the circuit below 

A the other two will continue to glow just as brightly as before. 

B the other two will glow more brightly than before. 

C the other two will glow less brightly than before. 

D all globes will go out. 

15 What will happen to the current leaving the cell in the circuit below if point X is 

joined to point Y with a copper connecting wire? 

A It will stay the same. 

B It will be one third of its previous value. 

C It will initially triple and possibly ‘blow’ the globe. 

D No current will flow, but no globe will be damaged. 



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16 What would happen if all the power points in part of your home were wired in 

series? 

A The voltage would be too great and damage anything plugged into one of 

them. 

B If more than one power point was being used, the voltage would be too 

small for devices to operate normally. 

C They would work normally as long as used sensibly (ie not overloaded) − 

power points are frequently wired in parallel with each other. 

D All power points would have to be ‘on’ in order for any to work. 


1 Describe the force between each of the 

following as A (attract), R (repel) or N 

(no force). 

a 

b 

c 

d 



1 

4



2 Explain the science behind a situation 

in which a person experiences a static 

electricity effect. 

3 Predict where you think the word 

‘photostat’ comes from. 

4 An electric charge produces an electric 

field. Explain what happens to the size 

of an electric field when 

a you move closer to the charge. 

b the size of the charge is 

increased. 

5 Identify several electric field lines by 

drawing them on the diagram below. 



3 

2 

2 

3



6 Explain why the metal foil strips at the 

lower end of the electroscope below 

repel each other, despite the rod not 

touching the device. 

7 Describe the direction of conventional 

current in the conductor below. 

8 Complete these sentences. 

a ________ is a measure of the rate 

at which charge flows, and is 

measured in ________. 

b ________ is a measure of the 

energy given to or lost by 

charges, and is measured in 

________. 

9 Identify the basic ‘ingredients’ in a cell 

or battery. 

10 a Define a conductor. 

b Define an insulator. 

c Identify two examples of a 

conductor. 

d Identify two examples of an 

insulator. 



2 

2 

4 

2 

4



11 Identify two examples of a resistance in 

a circuit. 

12 State the reading on each meter below. 

Each meter is either a voltmeter or 

ammeter and is connected correctly. 

Assume globes in the same circuit are 

identical. 

a 

b 

c 



2 

10



13 Consider the circuit below. 

Identify which other globes would go 

out if 

a globe B blows. 

b globe D blows. 

c globe A blows. 

d a copper wire is used to create a 

short circuit from X to Y (assume 

no globes blow). 

14 Consider the party light circuit below. 

a What would be the effect on the 

other globes in the circuit if one 

globe blew? 

b How could the circuit be 

redesigned so that if a globe 

blows, none of the others do? 



4 

3


Chapter 6: Ecology 




1 All living plants and animals in a particular region may be described as 

A a community. 

B an organism. 

C the environment. 

D an ecosystem. 

2 A biome refers to 

A a chemical pollutant. 

B an artificial environment such as a greenhouse. 

C areas having similar climatic conditions. 

D a biogeographical region. 

3 A habitat is 

A the most specific level possible for an organism’s ‘address’. 

B the broadest category for an organism’s address. 

C an organism’s typical behaviour. 

D a specific area such as a sand dune or tree. 

4 Physical characteristics or behaviours that help an organism live in a particular 

environment are called 

A attributes. 

B adaptations. 

C camouflage. 

D instincts. 



1 

1 

1 

1



5 Which of the following is an abiotic factor that influences where an organism 

can live? 

A Humidity. 

B Predation. 

C Human intervention. 

D Competition from other organisms. 

6 Salinity is a measure of 

A the number of organisms in a particular region. 

B the acidity of soil. 

C the amount of water vapour in the air. 

D the salt content of water. 

7 The original source of all energy used by organisms is 

A plants. 

B water. 

C glucose. 

D the Sun. 

8 A secondary consumer is 

A a plant. 

B an animal that eats plants. 

C an animal that eats an animal that eats plants. 

D an omnivore. 

9 Each ‘link’ in a food chain is 

A a plant. 

B an animal. 

C an organism. 

D a carnivore. 

10 Communities with high biodiversity are more likely to survive environmental 

changes because they 

A contain more than one type of food source for the organisms within them. 

B have denser plant growth, which insulates the community from such 

changes. 

C are generally popular tourist attractions and are protected by law. 

D consist of large numbers of only a few species. 



1 

1 

1 

1 

1 

1



11 The number of producers in a food chain is 

A less than the number of producers. 

B the same as the number of consumers. 

C greater than the number of consumers. 

D possibly any of the above, depending on the organisms involved. 

12 A decomposer is 

A an animal that eats another animal. 

B a plant that loses its leaves in winter. 

C an organism which breaks down organic matter so it is recycled. 

D an animal that uses sound as its main method of communication. 

13 The interaction between a remora (a type of sucker fish) and a shark to which it 

attaches is an example of commensalism because 

A the remora benefits, but the shark is harmed. 

B the remora benefits, but the shark is unaffected. 

C the remora is unaffected, but the shark is harmed. 

D both fish benefit from their relationship. 

14 The impact of humans on the ecosystem increased suddenly after the 

A environmental convolution. 

B mechanical inspiration. 

C climatic illusion. 

D industrial revolution. 

15 A pollutant is 

A a substance created by human activity that harms the environment. 

B a natural or artificial substance that makes the environment unhealthy for 

some organisms. 

C a gas such as sulfur dioxide that is able to reach the atmosphere. 

D something produced when a fossil fuel is burnt. 

16 The greenhouse effect occurs because gases released into the atmosphere cause 

A plants to grow too quickly and rob the atmosphere of vital gases. 

B heat to be trapped on the Earth. 

C the hole in the ozone layer to increase in size. 

D the atmosphere to become too thin and allow more energy to escape from 

the Earth. 

17 Which of the following are introduced species as far as Australia is concerned? 

A Rabbit. 

B Carp. 

C Pig. 

D All of the above. 



1 

1 

1 

1 

1 

1 

1



18 Frogs in Australia are considered to be environmental indicators because 

A they are the most common Australian animal and so may be easily caught 

and studied. 

B they are at the bottom of the food chain. 

C they breathe through their skin and depend on water, so pollutants tend to 

affect them strongly. 

D they change colour in response to pollutants. 


1 Classify the following in order from 

smallest to largest: 

biome, microhabitat, biosphere, habitat, 

biogeographical region 

2 Match each of the following with one of 

the regions given in the previous 

question. 

a Just under the surface of some 

desert sand. 

b The part of our planet where life 

exists. 

c Grassland. 

d A tussock of grass. 

e Australia. 

3 Identify two examples of 

a organisms. 

b the non-living environment. 

4 Describe the characteristics of an 

organism which lives most of its life 

under the desert sand. 



1 

3 

5 

4 

2



5 Animal species suffer reductions in 

populations during or immediately after 

a fire. Identify how some escape the 

fire. 

6 Identify 

a an animal and describe two 

physical adaptations. 

b an animal (it may be the same 

one as above) and describe two 

behavioural adaptations. 

7 Describe how each of the following 

affects organisms. Give a specific 

examples. 

a Temperature. 

b Humidity. 

c Light availability. 

d Acidity. 

8 Clarify each of the following factors 

that affect where an organism can live. 

a Competition. 

b Dispersal. 

c Predation. 

d Human intervention. 



3 

4 

4 

4



9 Identify a biotic factor and an abiotic 

factor (in that order) that may affect a 

kookaburra. 

10 Classify each of the following as a 

herbivore, carnivore or omnivore. 

a Crocodile. 

b Deer. 

c Blue-tongue lizard. 

11 Draw arrows identifying the links 

between the following animals in a 

possible food web. 

snake, garden skink, kookaburra, fly 



3 

3 

3



12 a Explain why a food web is more 

accurate than a food chain. 

b Use arrows to identify several 

connections in the food web 

below. 

13 Choose one of the terms listed to 

describe each of the following 

interactions. 

mutualism, competition, amensalism, 

herbivory, parasitism, predation 

a A small bird picks insects from a 

rhinoceros’s hide. 

b Wallabies using a particular route 

repeatedly eventually wear a trail 

in the bush. 

c A tick burrows into the skin of a 

stumpy tail lizard, causing minor 

skin irritation. 

d A koala eats the leaves on a 

branch of a gum tree. 



4 

4



14 a Use the graph below to estimate 

what the human population was 

in the year 2000. 

b Predict the range of values that 

the population will lie between in 

the year 2020. 

15 Identify four types of waterway and 

ocean pollution. 

16 Describe the cause of two of the types 

of pollution in the previous question. 



3 

4 

2



17 Outline the problems caused by two 

different introduced species. 

18 Propose two ways of encouraging 

conservation of our native plants and 

animals. 



2 

2


Chapter 7: Plant systems 




1 The male part of a flower is made up of the 

A stigma, style and ovary. 

B petals and sepals. 

C anther and filament. 

D nectary and ovule. 

2 The openings in plant leaves that allow gases in and out and control water loss 

are called 

A the epidermis. 

B stomata. 

C mesophyll cells. 

D the cuticle. 

3 Which type of transport tube carries water and minerals from the roots in 

plants? 

A Chlorophyll. 

B Phloem. 

C Stoma. 

D Xylem. 

4 A vascular bundle is a 

A bunch of flowers or plant cuttings. 

B group of tubes within a plant. 

C group of guard cells on the underside of a leaf. 

D plant root system. 



1 

1 

1 

1



5 In which of these plant leaf cells is the maximum rate of photosynthesis 

expected to occur? 

A Epidermal cells. 

B Palisade cells. 

C Xylem cells. 

D Mesophyll cells. 

6 If carbon dioxide, water and chlorophyll are placed in a test tube in the sunlight 

A glucose and bubbles of oxygen will be produced immediately. 

B glucose and bubbles of oxygen will be produced, but only after a long 

period of time. 

C no reaction will occur because one reactant is missing. 

D no reaction will occur because necessary enzymes are missing. 

7 Photosynthesis may be considered a two-stage process. Which of the following 

occurs during stage 1? 

A Energy is released by chlorophyll molecules. 

B Energy is trapped by chlorophyll molecules. 

C Carbon dioxide is released. 

D Starch molecules are made. 

8 An experiment was conducted using the set-up shown below. 

The volume of gas collected in the test tube after 2 hours would not be affected 

by the 

A size of the test tube. 

B mass of plant used. 

C intensity of the light source. 

D temperature of the solution. 



1 

1 

1 

1



9 At night the starch in leaves is reconverted to glucose. This is called 

A photosynthesis. 

B Benzyme release. 

C destarching. 

D respiration. 

10 The process of using oxygen to release energy from food is called 

A photosynthesis. 

B respiration. 

C breathing. 

D elimination. 

11 Respiration is a chemical reaction which 

A occurs only in the body cells of animals. 

B always has oxygen as a reactant. 

C involves a sequence of reactions. 

D is endothermic (absorbs energy). 

12 Which colour of light is not absorbed by chlorophyll? 

A Green. 

B Red. 

C Blue. 

D Orange. 



1 

1 

1 

1



13 The graph below shows the amount of oxygen produced by a plant as light 

intensity was increased under two different sets of conditions. 

Which of the following would explain the difference between graphs X and Y? 

A Graph X was obtained with the plant in orange light, graph Y with the plant 

in red light. 

B Graph X was obtained with the plant at a higher temperature than for graph 

Y. 

C Graph X was obtained with the plant in a higher concentration of carbon 

dioxide than for graph Y. 

D Graph X was obtained using a larger mass of plant than for graph Y. 


1 Label the following parts of a plant 

stem cross-section using the terms 

below. 

xylem, phloem, cambium, vascular 

bundle 



1 

4



2 Identify two functions of 

a the roots. 

b the stem. 

3 Flowering plants may either be selfpollinated 

or cross-pollinated. 

a Define cross-pollination. 

b Propose two ways in which 

cross-pollination can be made to 

occur. 

4 A particular flower has its stigma placed 

higher than its anthers. Predict whether 

this flower could be self-pollinated. 

Explain your answer. 



4 

4 

2



5 The diagram below shows a section 

through a plant leaf. 

Identify which label (1 to 8) represents 

a an epidermal cell. 

b a palisade cell. 

c a xylem vessel. 

d a chloroplast. 

e a stoma cell. 

6 Propose explanations for 

a plants in the desert growing very 

slowly. 

b plants not being found in the 

ocean at depths greater than 

300 m. 



5 

4



7 a Write a chemical equation for the 

process of photosynthesis. 

b Identify two other requirements 

(apart from the reactants) for 

photosynthesis to occur. 

c Define the reaction as either 

exothermic or endothermic. 

8 Identify the plant cell structures in 

which the following processes occur. 

a Stage 1 of respiration. 

b Stage 2 of respiration. 

c Photosynthesis. 

9 Identify three ways in which the 

glucose produced during photosynthesis 

may be used by a plant. 



4 

3 

3



10 The graph below shows the effect of 

light intensity on the rate of 

photosynthesis. 

Explain 

a why the rate increases in the first 

section (I) of the graph. 

b why the rate does not increase in 

the second section (II) of the 

graph. 

11 An experiment was conducted using the 

flasks shown below. All flasks 

contained water, were at the same 

temperature and were in sunlight. 

After two hours the carbon dioxide level 

in each flask was measured. 

a Identify the flask (A–D) in 

which the carbon dioxide level 

would be lowest after two hours. 

b Explain how you arrived at your 

choice in part (a). 



4 

4



12 Which colour of light is strongly 

absorbed by 

a water? 

b green algae? 

c red algae? 

13 a Write a chemical word equation 

for the process of aerobic 

respiration. 

b Does this reaction absorb or 

release energy? 

c What does the word ‘aerobic’ 

mean? 



3 

4


Chapter 8: Astronomy 




1 Astronomy is the study of the 

A Earth. 

B solar system. 

C Milky Way. 

D universe. 

2 A meteorite is 

A a small meteor. 

B a space rock that misses the Earth. 

C a small chunk of space rock that hits the Earth. 

D a piece of space junk originating from the Earth. 

3 Asteroids are also known as 

A megameteors. 

B minor planets. 

C planet killers. 

D dirty snowballs. 

4 Which type of non-planetary space rock orbits the Sun (ie is a member of the 

solar system)? 

A Asteroid. 

B Comet. 

C Meteor. 

D Shooting star. 

5 Which of the following contribute to the formation of a comet’s tails? 

A The Earth’s gravity. 

B The solar wind. 

C The size of the comet. 

D The Earth’s atmosphere. 



1 

1 

1 

1 

1



6 Most of the stars you see at night are 

A meteors. 

B galaxies. 

C planets. 

D suns. 

7 A light year is 

A the distance between the Earth and the Sun. 

B the distance light travels in a year. 

C the diameter of the Milky Way galaxy. 

D the time taken for a planet to revolve around its sun. 

8 Our nearest multiple star system is 

A Alpha Centauri. 

B Ceres. 

C the Southern Cross. 

D Orion. 

9 The dark circle shown on the celestial sphere below denotes a particular 

A altitude. 

B azimuth. 

C right ascension. 

D declination. 

10 An ecliptic is 

A the duration of an eclipse. 

B an object that blocks light from the Sun. 

C the path followed by the Sun on the celestial sphere. 

D a circular star chart used to locate stars during any time of year. 



1 

1 

1 

1 

1



11 Which of the following magnitudes indicates the faintest star? 

A 0 

B 0.5 

C 1.0 

D -0.6 

12 Which of the following is a major space-based telescope? 

A Bubble. 

B Hubble. 

C Keck. 

D Tech. 

13 The Milky Way is part of a larger group called 

A the big dipper. 

B the local group. 

C the Andromeda super galaxy. 

D the spiral arm. 

14 A geostationary orbit is one in which the satellite 

A moves in the same rotational direction and at the same speed as the Earth. 

B moves in a path at right angles to the rotation of the Earth. 

C moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more quickly. 

D moves in the same rotational direction as the Earth, but more slowly. 

15 The transponder in a satellite like Intelsat 5 

A ‘cleans up’ and boosts a signal received by the satellite. 

B sends signals to a hand-held GPS receiver on the Earth. 

C measures temperature and pressure using special sensors. 

D analyses light reflected from the Earth’s surface. 



1 

1 

1 

1 

1




1 Examine the descriptions and match 

each one to the names in the list below. 

meteor, meteorite, asteroid, comet 

a Dirty snowball a few kilometres 

in diameter with long period 

orbits around the Sun. 

b Flaming meteoroid. 

c Large irregular-shaped object, 

potentially dangerous to the 

Earth. 

d Piece of space rock which 

occasionally hits the Earth 

usually without causing serious 

damage. 

2 a Identify the point from which the 

meteor shower shown below 

originates. 

b What is this point called? 

3 Identify 

a the location of the asteroid belt. 

b the approximate number of 

asteroids in the belt. 



4 

2 

2



4 Classify the space rocks as either 

comets, meteors or asteroids. 

a Ceres and Ida. 

b Hale−Bopp and 

Shoemaker−Levy 9. 

c The Orionids. 

5 List four things a giant space rock 

collision with the Earth might cause. 

6 Identify three constellations. 3 

7 The position of a star is marked on the 

celestial sphere below as a dot. 

Define 

a the right ascension of the star. 

b the declination of the star. 

Identify 

c on the sphere the position of a 

star whose coordinates may be 

described as RA 10 h, DEC 30°. 



3 

4 

3



8 Define three different types of galaxy. 

Also sketch each type. 

9 Complete these sentences about parts of 

the Milky Way galaxy. 

a An ________ cluster contains a 

few hundred stars within the 

spiral arm of the galaxy. 

b A ________ cluster may be seen 

with the naked eye as a fuzzy 

star, but actually contains up to a 

million stars. 

10 Identify the types of waves detected by 

a an optical telescope. 

b a radio telescope. 

11 Recall 

a how high above the Earth’s 

surface a satellite in geostationary 

orbit is. 

b what it means when a satellite is 

in an asynchronous orbit. 

c which kind of orbit observation 

satellites are usually placed in. 

d which kind of orbit 

communication satellites are 

usually placed in. 



6 

2 

2 

4

Science Focus 2 - Chapter Tests - Pearson Australia Media Resources

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