ExamView - 2011-2012 AP Ecology Unit Exam.tst - AP Biology

AP Biology - Ecology Unit Exam 

Multiple Choice 

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 

1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a 

A) community. 

B) population. 

C) biosystem. 

D) ecosystem. 

E) family. 

2) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material but 

do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope? 

A) protists 

B) plant 

C) fungi 

D) animal 

E) archaea 

3) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms? 

A) genomics 

B) informatics 

C) schematic biology 

D) taxonomy 

E) evolution 

4) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common? 

A) linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein 

B) a cell wall made of cellulose 

C) ribosomes 

D) a membrane-bounded nucleus 

E) flagella or cilia that contain microtubules 

5) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but 

lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification? 

A) Fungi 

B) Eukarya 

C) Animalia 

D) Protista 

E) Archaea 

1

6) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated that organisms of a 

particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess 

A) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment. 

B) non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the 

local environment. 

C) non-inheritable traits that enhance their reproductive success in the local 

environment. 

D) inheritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local 

environment. 

E) inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local 

environment. 

7) Why is Darwin considered original in his thinking? 

A) He proposed the mechanism that explained how evolution takes place. 

B) He observed that organisms produce large numbers of offspring. 

C) He provided examples of organisms that had evolved over time. 

D) He described the relationship between genes and evolution. 

E) He demonstrated that evolution is continuing to occur now. 

8) Which of the following categories of organisms is least likely to be revised? 

A) species 

B) phylum 

C) order 

D) kingdom 

E) class 

9) Collecting data based on observation is an example of _____; analyzing this data to reach a conclusion 

is an example of _____ reasoning. 

A) hypothesis-based science; deductive 

B) descriptive science; deductive 

C) discovery science; inductive 

D) the process of science; deductive 

E) hypothesis-based science; inductive 

10) A controlled experiment is one in which 

A) the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate. 

B) there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more 

variables. 

C) there is one group for which the scientist controls all variables. 

D) the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can 

carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data. 

E) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental 

treatment. 

2

11) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as 

A) deductive science. 

B) anthropologic science. 

C) inductive science. 

D) pure science. 

E) technology. 

12) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis? 

I. It is testable. 

II. It is falsifiable. 

III. It produces quantitative data. 

IV. It produces results that can be replicated. 

A) II only 

B) I only 

C) III only 

D) I and II 

E) III and IV 

13) All the organisms on your campus make up 

A) an experimental group. 

B) a taxonomic domain. 

C) an ecosystem. 

D) a community. 

E) a population. 

14) Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and 

animals? 

A) wind 

B) water 

C) disturbances 

D) rocks and soil 

E) temperature 

15) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the 

western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist 

should 

A) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude. 

B) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species. 

C) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals 

that may support their growth. 

D) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations 

for a year. 

E) study the anatomy and physiology of this species. 

3

16) Species introduced by humans to new geographic locations 

A) can outcompete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources. 

B) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem. 

C) are usually successful in colonizing the area. 

D) always spread because they encounter none of their natural predators. 

E) are always considered pests by ecologists. 

17) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not 

at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of 

A) gene flow. 

B) introgression. 

C) allopatric speciation. 

D) convergent evolution. 

E) parallel evolution. 

18) Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake? 

A) limnetic zone 

B) pelagic zone 

C) aphotic zone 

D) littoral zone 

E) benthic zone 

19) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? 

A) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns 

B) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering 

C) cold winter months 

D) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm 

E) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes 

20) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to 

the changes 

A) in biomes at different latitudes. 

B) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time. 

C) in a community through different seasons 

D) at different depths in the ocean. 

E) across the United States from east to west. 

21) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? 

I. inhabiting the same general area 

II. belonging to the same species 

III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion 

A) I only 

B) III only 

C) I and II only 

D) II and III only 

E) I, II, and III 

4

22) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? 

A) moths, in a city at night 

B) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree 

C) red squirrels, who actively defend territories 

D) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen 

E) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams 

23) Which of the following is the best example of uniform distribution? 

A) a cultivated cornfield in the Midwest 

B) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season 

C) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow 

D) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide 

E) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest 

24) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic 

population growth? 

A) decreased death rate 

B) removal of predators 

C) increased birth rate 

D) competition for resources 

E) favorable climatic conditions 

The following questions refer to Figure 53.3, which depicts the age structure of three populations. 

25) Which population(s) is (are) in the process of decreasing? 

A) I 

B) II 

C) III 

D) I and II 

E) II and III 

26) A population's carrying capacity 

A) generally remains constant over time. 

B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model. 

C) may change as environmental conditions change. 

D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases. 

E) can never be exceeded. 

5

27) Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best 

describe this plant–herbivore interaction? 

A) commensalism 

B) parasitism 

C) predation 

D) mutualism 

E) competition 

28) Approximately how many kg of carnivore biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1,000 kg 

of plant material? 

A) 10,000 

B) 100 

C) 10 

D) 1 

E) 1,000 

29) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The 

species removed was likely a(n) 

A) pathogen. 

B) keystone species. 

C) resource partitioner. 

D) herbivore. 

E) mutualistic organism. 

30) Why are food chains relatively short? 

A) Food chain length is ultimately determined by the photosynthetic efficiency of 

producers. 

B) Top–level feeders tend to be more numerous than lower–trophic–level species. 

C) Top–level feeders tend to be small but are capable of conserving more energy. 

D) Longer chains are less stable and energy transfer between levels is inefficient. 

E) There are only so many organisms that are adapted to feed on other types of 

organisms. 

31) Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat? 

A) More pathogens tend to immigrate into newer habitats. 

B) Intermediate host species are more motile and transport pathogens to new areas. 

C) Pathogens evolve more efficient forms of reproduction in new environments. 

D) Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the 

pathogen through natural selection. 

E) New environments are almost always smaller in area so that transmission of 

pathogens is easily accomplished between hosts. 

32) According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an 

island that is 

A) large and remote. 

B) small and close to a mainland. 

C) environmentally homogeneous. 

D) large and close to a mainland. 

E) small and remote. 

6

33) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n) 

A) autotroph. 

B) decomposer. 

C) secondary consumer. 

D) producer. 

E) primary consumer. 

34) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others? 

A) primary consumers 

B) herbivores 

C) secondary consumers 

D) heterotrophs 

E) carnivores 

35) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem? 

A) All of the brook trout in a 500 hectare 2 river drainage system. 

B) A pond and all of the plant and animal species that live in it. 

C) The intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna 

during a drought. 

D) The plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow. 

E) Interactions between all of the organisms and their physical environment in a 

tropical rain forest. 

36) The major role of detrivores in ecosystems is to 

A) return energy lost to the ecosystem by other organisms. 

B) recycle chemical nutrients to a form capable of being used by autotrophs. 

C) prevent the buildup of the organic remains of organisms, feces, and so on. 

D) provide a nutritional resource for heterotrophs. 

37) The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as 

A) standing crop. 

B) gross primary productivity. 

C) net primary productivity. 

D) secondary productivity. 

E) trophic efficiency. 

38) What is the primary limiting factor for aquatic productivity? 

A) lack of nutrients 

B) herbivores 

C) light availability 

D) pressure 

E) competition 

39) Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest percent in 

production efficiency? 

A) mammals, fish, insects 

B) insects, mammals, fish 

C) fish, insects, mammals 

D) mammals, insects, fish 

E) insects, fish, mammals 

7

40) The amount of chemical energy in consumers' food that is converted to their own new biomass during a 

given time period is known as which of the following? 

A) standing crop 

B) secondary production 

C) biomass 

D) biomagnification 

E) primary production 

41) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving 

humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the 

following could be true? 

A) Seal meat probably contains the highest concentrations of fat –soluble toxins. 

B) Seal populations are larger than fish populations. 

C) The fish can potentially provide more food for humans than the seal meat can. 

D) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can. 

E) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals. 

42) In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with N 2 are 

A) nitrifying bacteria. 

B) denitrifying bacteria. 

C) methanogenic protozoans. 

D) nitrogen–fixing bacteria. 

E) Rhizobium bacteria. 

43) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems? 

A) rock weathering 

B) cellular respiration 

C) vulcanism 

D) photosynthesis 

E) atmospheric phosphorous gas 

44) Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling? 

A) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks. 

B) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic 

and abiotic components of the ecosystem. 

C) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO 2 for 

the past million years. 

D) The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus. 

E) The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily involves the burning of fossil 

fuels. 

45) Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient–poor soils? 

A) Nutrients evaporate easily into the atmosphere in the post –logged forest. 

B) The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging. 

C) Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber. 

D) Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous. 

E) Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen–fixing bacteria. 

8

46) What is the first step in ecosystem restoration? 

A) to restore the physical structure 

B) to remove competitive invasive species 

C) to restore native species that have been extirpated due to disturbance 

D) to identify the limiting factors of the producers 

E) to remove toxic pollutants 

47) What is the goal of restoration ecology? 

A) to speed up the restoration of a degraded ecosystem 

B) to prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status 

C) to completely restore a disturbed ecosystem to its former undisturbed state 

D) to replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area 

E) to manage competition between species in human –altered ecosystems 

48) Which of the following statements is true? 

A) An ecosystem's trophic structure determines the rate at which energy cycles 

within the system. 

B) There has been a well–documented increase in atmospheric nitrogen over the past 

several decades. 

C) At any point in time, it is impossible for consumers to outnumber producers in an 

ecosystem. 

D) Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deep–sea vents are primary producers. 

E) The reservoir of ecosystem phosphorous is the atmosphere. 

49) In a typical grassland community, which of the following has the smallest biomass? 

A) hawk 

B) grass 

C) shrew 

D) grasshopper 

E) snake 

50) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by 

A) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb. 

B) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia. 

C) converting ammonia to nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere. 

D) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds. 

E) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil. 

9

ID: A 

AP Biology - Ecology Unit Exam 

Answer Section 

MULTIPLE CHOICE 

1) ANS: B TOP: Concept 1.1 MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 

BNK: Chapter 1—Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life 

2) ANS: B TOP: Concept 1.1 MSC: Application/Analysis 


3) ANS: D TOP: Concept 1.1 MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 


4) ANS: C TOP: Concept 1.1 MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 


5) ANS: E TOP: Concept 1.2 MSC: Application/Analysis 


6) ANS: E TOP: Concept 1.2 MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 


7) ANS: A TOP: Concept 1.2 MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 


8) ANS: A TOP: Concept 1.2 MSC: Synthesis/Evaluation 


9) ANS: C TOP: Concept 1.3 MSC: Application/Analysis 








13) ANS: D TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 



BNK: Chapter 52—An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 

15) ANS: A TOP: Concept 52.4 MSC: Application/Analysis 






18) ANS: C TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 


19) ANS: B TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Application/Analysis 


1

ID: A 

20) ANS: A TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Application/Analysis 


21) ANS: C TOP: Concept 53.1 MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 

BNK: Chapter 53—Population Ecology 



23) ANS: B TOP: Concept 53.1 MSC: Synthesis/Evaluation 


24) ANS: D TOP: Concept 53.3 MSC: Synthesis/Evaluation 


25) ANS: B TOP: Concept 53.6 MSC: Application/Analysis 


26) ANS: C TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 



BNK: Chapter 54—Community Ecology 









32) ANS: D TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension 



BNK: Chapter 55—Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology 

















2

ID: A 







45) ANS: C TOP: Concept 55.4 MSC: Synthesis/Evaluation 










50) ANS: A TOP: End–of–Chapter Questions MSC: Application/Analysis 


3

ExamView - 2011-2012 AP Ecology Unit Exam.tst - AP Biology

You also want an ePaper? Increase the reach of your titles

Delete template?

Save as template?