03.03.2015 Views

Model Answers Microbiology Written examinations 2007 - RCPA

Model Answers Microbiology Written examinations 2007 - RCPA

Model Answers Microbiology Written examinations 2007 - RCPA

SHOW MORE
SHOW LESS

You also want an ePaper? Increase the reach of your titles

YUMPU automatically turns print PDFs into web optimized ePapers that Google loves.

<strong>Model</strong> <strong>Answers</strong> <strong>Microbiology</strong> <strong>Written</strong> <strong>examinations</strong><br />

Menu: Part 1, <strong>2007</strong><br />

Part 2, <strong>2007</strong><br />

Queensland Trainee paper, <strong>2007</strong><br />

Leave feedback<br />

Part 1, <strong>2007</strong><br />

Answer all 5 Questions. All Questions have equal marks<br />

Introduction:<br />

1. Each of these following questions was marked by two examiners each of<br />

whom is an experienced examiner and a Fellow of the <strong>RCPA</strong> in the discipline<br />

of microbiology. Each examiner was asked to provide a “model‟ answer to<br />

the Chief examiner and the “model answers” provided below are based on a<br />

combination of these answers from experts in the field who are also<br />

examiners. The answers were also reviewed by the Chief Examiner<br />

<strong>Microbiology</strong><br />

2. It is important to define your subject and to answer the question carefully and<br />

accurately<br />

3. If your writing is not easy to read try spacing out your words and leaving a<br />

line between the lines. You will not lose marks for underlining and ruling off.<br />

Etc. If your writing is truly indecipherable you should contact the CEX and<br />

the exam invigilator there is a college Policy on this issue and it is possible to<br />

arrange for an alternative method for submitting the answers provided this is<br />

arranged in plenty of time prior to the examination and you are prepared to<br />

bear the cost of using an alternative method.<br />

4. You must also answer each question ONLY for the time allotted. You will<br />

not get more marks for spending twice the time on one section. 5 questions,<br />

20 marks each, 4 sections/ question = 5 marks per section. If you miss one<br />

section out you are immediately down 5 points.<br />

5. You should also read the instructions to candidates provided in the<br />

examination room so that you are aware of the marking system for that<br />

examination. You must carefully note the number of questions to answer and<br />

the time (duration) of the examination. NOTE: not all <strong>examinations</strong> are the<br />

same, so be ready to read and understand the instructions for each (written)<br />

examination.


Question 1. Write short notes on the laboratory detection of:<br />

H5N1 Influenza A virus<br />

AmpC resistance<br />

Sensitivity testing of yeasts<br />

Detection of T. vaginalis<br />

<strong>Model</strong> <strong>Answers</strong> for Question 1 (Areas to cover):<br />

H5NI Influenza A virus<br />

Discuss: the best specimens for detection, and why, the safety aspects of testing for<br />

this organism, the role of point of care tests, definitive laboratory tests eg antigen<br />

detection, viral culture (appropriate cell lines) and identification of isolates, RNA<br />

detection<br />

What tests are available, how they are performed, sensitivity and specificity of each,<br />

turnaround times and usefulness<br />

Role of serology<br />

See PHLN document “Detection of Influenza”. influenza.pdf<br />

AmpC resistance<br />

When to suspect it<br />

Which organisms are involved?<br />

Where does it come from?<br />

Results with conventional sensitivity testing-disc, automated devices, other<br />

Definitive testing: phenotypic and genotypic<br />

Different screening methods especially disc diffusion and other methods for<br />

inducing the enzyme<br />

Technical details and interpretation of same (in considerable detail)<br />

Genotyping<br />

See attached document on Amp C


Sensitivity testing of yeasts<br />

Brief but comprehensive description of all methods used in diagnostic laboratories<br />

Macro broth<br />

Micro broth (sensititre)<br />

Disc diffusion (CLSI)<br />

Etests<br />

Others<br />

How to perform, how to interpret, standardisation, controls, limitations, and practical<br />

difficulties<br />

Differences between different organisms, different antifungals<br />

CLSI document on yeast sensitivity testing (reference and example pages attached)<br />

Article: Antifungal Susceptibility testing: New trends<br />

Detection of T vaginalis<br />

Specimens, transport and storage conditions, on the spot microscopy vv transported<br />

specimens<br />

Direct microscopy , wet films, permanent preparations, how performed, sensitivity,<br />

advantages and disadvantages<br />

Culture-methods, indications<br />

Non microscopic methods (molecular)<br />

Comments:<br />

This is a microbiology examination so a detailed discussion of the clinical<br />

presentation, treatment, importance of the organism and public health aspects is NOT<br />

required. Time spent on those issues will mean less time to specifically answer the<br />

question and therefore lower marks will be obtained.<br />

The introduction to the question above specifically states “write short notes on the<br />

laboratory detection of:”.<br />

Everything relevant to the laboratory detection should be considered including<br />

sample collection, specimen transport, methods of processing in the laboratory and<br />

the reasons why some methods are “better,” (used more frequently, automated, cost<br />

less, commercially available) and the advantages and disadvantages of each and the<br />

reporting and report comments, can, and should be considered in your answers


Question 2 Compare the advantages and disadvantages of:<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

RTPCR and viral culture<br />

Chromogenic media and selective media<br />

Swabs versus fluid samples for examination for bacteria<br />

Serum versus plasma for antibody detection<br />

RTPCR and viral culture<br />

Confusion over whether RT means Real time or reverse transcriptase therefore you<br />

must define your topic and indicate what you are addressing if there is confusion.<br />

General discussion about PCR is acceptable<br />

PCR- Rapid TAT especially important when infection control public health<br />

intervention required. Detects non cultivable viruses. Can be used to detect dangerous<br />

viruses without the need for P3/4 facility, Sensitive, Transport and storage of<br />

specimens less important than fro culture, Initial set up is expensive, Easier to train<br />

staff in PCR techniques than those for viral culture, Problems with false positives and<br />

inhibitors resulting in false negative results, Can only detect specific viruses tested for<br />

. there is no isolate available for further characterisation or sensitivity testing<br />

although sequencing can reveal some known genes associated with resistance in some<br />

viruses eg CMV, HIV<br />

Viral culture: Slow, need to maintain cell cultures, CPE can be subtle or non specific,<br />

experienced staff needed to undertake viral cultures, increasingly hard to find. Cell<br />

lines prone to contamination, can detect many different viruses including novel<br />

strains, less sensitive but more specific although new PCR techniques to trawl<br />

samples for DNA/RNA have detected several new viruses recently that have not been<br />

identified in culture previously, Virus available for further characterisation eg typing,<br />

resistance testing and to enable fulfilment of Koch‟s postulates<br />

Chromogenic media and selective media<br />

Candidates need to show that they understand the difference between differential and<br />

selective media. Chromogenic media: commercial , less flexible, expensive. Useful<br />

in mixed culture where provisional ID only of pathogen may be sufficient. Advantage<br />

relates to ease opf plate reading and rapid provisional ID. Colour differences may be<br />

sublte, Some important organisms can not be differentiated eg klebsiella/enterobacter.<br />

Expensive if further ID still required. Selective media: often in house so flexible and<br />

cheaper, isolates always require additional ID tests. Some straines of bacteria may be<br />

inhibited.


Swabs versus fluid samples for examination for bacteria<br />

Swabs: Cheap and readily available.<br />

Usually easy to collect specimen. Easiy storage and transport. Only collects small<br />

superficial sample. Less suitable for anaerobic or fastidious organisms, Not suitable<br />

for AFB detection. Some swab types are inhibitory to some bacteria and other<br />

organisms. Easy to plate, Microscopy , quantitation can be problematic, culture<br />

results often reflect superficial colonising bacteria only.<br />

Fluids: Usually large sample from a normally sterile site. Requires invasive<br />

procedure to collect, Immediate processing required, Provides additional information<br />

eg cell count, crystals etc. All bacteria are potentially detectable. A concentration step<br />

may be required, may be abole to perform other tests eg PCR, viral culture. Isolates<br />

usually more significant than isolates from swabs.<br />

Serum versus plasma for antibody detection<br />

Need to know the difference between plasma (cell free blood with proteins and<br />

clotting factors) and anticoagulant. Serum, extracellular portion of blood after<br />

coagulation (cell free and protein free blood (clotted)). Plasma is preferred sample in<br />

biochemistry laboratories because of faster TAT, larger volume to test and easier to<br />

automate. One tube fits all. Serum is preferred for antibody tests. Plasma can not be<br />

used for agglutination or Complement Fixation tests. Plasma may be used in some<br />

EIA tests if they have been calibrated. NAA tests can be undertaken on plasma and<br />

serum


Question 3: Discuss the differences between:<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Virulence and pathogenicity<br />

Colonisation and infection<br />

S. aureus and MRSA<br />

Planktonic and sessile bacteria<br />

Virulence and pathogenicity<br />

Pathogenicity is the ability of an organism to cause disease due to structural and<br />

biochemical mechanisms. Pathogenic organisms have the ability to invade tissues and<br />

initiate infection. Involves both host and microbial factors. Pathogen requires ability<br />

to colonise, bypass host defences, invade deeper tissues. Due to the [presence of<br />

adhesions, resistance to phagocytosis, intracellular invasion and survival within cells,<br />

impairment of complement functions, lytic effect on PMN<br />

Virulence is the degree of pathogenicity within a group of organisms. Multifactorial<br />

microbial and host factors. Infectivity is the ability to initiate infection. Severity<br />

depends on the presence of virulence factors. These are substances produced by<br />

bacteria to harm the host. Eg exotoxins, haemolysins, lipases, elastases, proteases,<br />

alginate polysaccharides, antimicrobial resistance factors, leucocidin, hyaluronidase,<br />

streptokinase, staphylokinase, cytolysins, siderophores, protein M, TSST, PVL<br />

Virulence could be manifest in one host (eg immune suppressed vv another).<br />

Microbial virulence factors can be the target of effective immune responses eg<br />

antibody response demonstrating that host immunity influences virulence. Virulence<br />

factors may be used as vaccine antigens to reduce or negate virulence in certain<br />

microbes<br />

Colonisation and infection<br />

Colonisation requires attachment of bacteria via adhesions to receptors in host tissues,<br />

may be part of the normal flora, may be symbiotic with the host, may precede<br />

infection, examples of adhesions include: pili, fimbriae, lipoteichoic acid, protein F,<br />

examples of normal colonisation are skin, GI tract, upper respiratory tract<br />

Normal flora organisms colonise surfaces<br />

Infection is acquisition of a microbe by a host then invasion of the host by organisms<br />

with virulence factors to produce local or systematic disease. Ie there is presence of<br />

the organism, invasion and a host response. Infecting organisms penetrate the skin or<br />

mucous membranes by the production of invasions (spreading factors, hyaluronidase,<br />

collagenase, etc) and more extensive effects if exotoxins are produced.<br />

Clinical examples of infection compared with colonisation, normal flora compared<br />

with pathogens.


S. aureus and MRSA<br />

S. aureus: traditional pathogen sensitive to antibiotics, community and hospital,<br />

spectrum of disease virulence, treatment. Catalase pos, coag pos, gram positive<br />

coccus. Reservoir is anterior nares. Grows on non selective agar as golden colonies.<br />

Causes boils, food poisoning,(preformed toxin) endocarditis. Selective media<br />

including mannitol salt agar, salt broth, treat with flucloxacillin<br />

MRSA sub set of S. aureus. Resistance to beta lactams (and other classes). Mec A<br />

SCC, laboratory detection, hospital pathogen, virulence, nature of host, community<br />

strains caMRSA, PVL, treatment, infection control issues.<br />

Treat with vancomycin, linezolid, teicoplanin.<br />

Planktonic and sessile bacteria<br />

Planktonic bacteria are those that are suspended or growing in a fluid environment as<br />

opposed to those attached to a surface. Mobile, active metabolism, more sensitive to<br />

antibiotics, different DNA to sessile forms<br />

Sessile bacteria live on a surface in a community or biofilm. Reduced growth rate<br />

compared with planktonic bacteria, enmeshed in a matrix of extracellular polymeric<br />

substances, growth regulated by quorum sensing system. MIC much higher in old<br />

biofilms compared with planktonic bacteria. Antibiotics have difficulty penetrating<br />

biofilm and therefore difficult to eradicate.<br />

Examples IV lines, prosthetic valves, joints.


Question 4. Write short notes on:<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Norovirus detection<br />

Role of anaerobic blood cultures<br />

Flocked swabs<br />

Non cultivable bacteria<br />

Norovirus detection<br />

+ss RNA virus; Calciviridae, human calici virus distantly related to the other human<br />

calicivirus....sapovirus. 2 strains of Norovirus, genotype 1 and 2. Responsible for<br />

acute gastroenteritis. Nausea 9%, vomiting 69% and diarrhoea 66%, abdominal<br />

cramps 33% also headache, fever, chills reported. first recorded epidemic in 1968.<br />

Norwark virus. Epidemics occur in winter and spring and low background disease<br />

throughout the year. Often associated with hospitals, nursing homes, cruise ships,<br />

restaurant s and schools. Virus shed in vomitus and faeces. Faecal oral and vomitus<br />

oral eg alleged vomitus aerosol landing on food or fomites and then being consumed.<br />

In developed countries 50% population infected by 5 th decade. Acquired earlier in<br />

developing companies with poor sanitation. Gut virus receptor related to certain<br />

blood group antigens. Blood group B individuals are resistant to infection. RNA<br />

codes 3 ORF: ORF 1 encodes a non structural polyprotein that self cleaves to form 6<br />

structural proteins. ORF2 the capsid protein; ORF3 a minor structural protein.<br />

Diagnosis : RT-PCR of faeces or vomit. EM and IEM used in the past. Antigen<br />

based tests available but have low sensitivity and do not cover all human strains of<br />

norovirus probably due to antigenic variability/instability. (genotype 2 common<br />

strain in Australia<br />

Role of anaerobic blood cultures<br />

Past blood culture studies have shown rates of anaerobic bacteraemia of 10-15%.<br />

More recently this rate has fallen. ~5%. Finding anaerobes must be taken seriously<br />

as they can indicate important underlying primary infection or underlying disease. B<br />

frag = intraabdominal infection, F necrophorum + Lemmiere‟s disease or<br />

necrobacillosis with venoocclusive complications, clostridial sp and association with<br />

colonic cancer, gas gangrene. Often polymicrobial bacteria in gut disease.<br />

Automated systems detect anaerobes at similar rates<br />

Flocked swabs<br />

Used for 2 reasons; > nasopharyngeal cells cp cotton tipped swabs or NPAs, better<br />

detection of N gono and Chlamydia. Nylon, > absorbtive surface, non inhibitory<br />

Non cultivable bacteria<br />

Recent molecular tools suggest that non cultivable bacteria exist in many situations<br />

such as the gut. These organisms do not yet grow on defined media. An example is


Tropheryma whippelii the cause of whipples disease. This organisms was visualised<br />

in tissues but has not yet been cultured., identified using 16sRNA PCR. Interest in<br />

these organisms in chrons disease, inflammatory joint disease. T pallidum, C<br />

trachomatis are also non cultivable. Other reasons for inability to culture include<br />

prior use of antibiotics, dormant bacteria<br />

Question 5: Write short notes on<br />

Kohler illumination<br />

Gram‟s stain<br />

Use of a biological safety cabinet<br />

Disinfectants for use in the microbiology laboratory<br />

See attached paper for answers to all of these questions


<strong>Microbiology</strong> PART 2, <strong>2007</strong> <strong>Model</strong> answers<br />

Question 1, Marker 1<br />

What is the role of antenatal serology in modern medical practice and why?<br />

Roles of serology<br />

Routine screening<br />

At risk screening<br />

Diagnosis where risk of consequences<br />

When the infection is likely to have consequence for the foetus – eg contact with<br />

rash or rash-like illness in pregnancy. This is incorporated into the discussion of<br />

each of the specific infections.<br />

Diagnosis of acute disease<br />

Where interventions are available or where reassurance can be given that no foetal<br />

harm is likely e.g. EBV BFV RRV etc


General principles<br />

Routine vs selective<br />

The following factors should be taken into account when selecting a screening<br />

strategy:<br />

1. Detect infection<br />

Does the test detect potential foetal infection and damage?<br />

2. Assay<br />

Is there a sensitive and specific reliable assay available?<br />

3. Intervention<br />

Is there a safe and effective intervention strategy available if detected?<br />

4. Frequency<br />

Problems<br />

Does the infection occur at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the<br />

screening?<br />

Asymptomatic infections<br />

Poor positive predictive value<br />

Requiring further investigative actions<br />

Repeat serology/avidity etc<br />

Amniotic fluid examination<br />

Foetal blood examination<br />

Cord blood examination<br />

Often the true state of affairs remains unresolved<br />

Can generate angst for mother and family<br />

Termination as a result of not tolerating even minimal risk<br />

Psychological, Medicolegal, Ethical, Medical dilemmas<br />

Practical points<br />

Never base management decisions on a single test result<br />

Repeat tests preferably using a different method and on a second collection<br />

False positive IgM‟s are not that uncommon<br />

Serial sample testing important<br />

Avidity testing also may help – proportional to the maturation response of<br />

antibodies<br />

High avidity excludes infection in the previous 3- 4 months<br />

Low avidity usually BUT, not always, implies recent infection<br />

Stored serum samples at least for one year are important<br />

Examples<br />

Syphilis<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage


Primary, Secondary, Latent, Tertiary – Risk of foetal infection inversely<br />

proportional to stage<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

EIA and other specific serology TPPA, FTA Abs WB<br />

RPR to monitor disease activity<br />

Note EIA false positives<br />

Note biological false positives in pregnancy<br />

Follow RPR to monitor treatment response<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

Penicillin especially before 12 weeks as the damage to the foetus is<br />

immunological<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Cost of caring for an infected infant high – recent cost benefit analysis in<br />

Australia means that women at risk from bisexual men,<br />

<br />

<br />

Rubella<br />

Capturing the appropriate population an issue – aboriginal population<br />

Need to attend antenatal care and have repeat testing if at risk exposures<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage - Primary infection CRS<br />

< 8 weeks – 90-100%<br />

8-12 weeks – 50%<br />

12-20 weeks – 20%<br />

>20 weeks < 1%<br />

Rubella reinfection 19 IU/ML = immune<br />

o If


2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

Not generally recommended<br />

IgM may persist for weeks to months to years following infection<br />

IgA or avidity testing may be more helpful<br />

Recently recommending testing infants at birth (Massuchuses)<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

Antibiotic therapy – spiramycin T1 and pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine<br />

T2 and T3<br />

Diagnosis of foetal infection – US and amniocentesis and PCR at least 4<br />

weeks after documented infection<br />

Treatment of newborn for 12 months following delivery to halt progressive<br />

disease (Chicago studies)<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Pros and cons complex; Seroprevalence 14%<br />

Educative protocols in place<br />

Some recommend repeat testing after 1-6 months or at delivery to identify<br />

seroconversion<br />

HIV<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage<br />

Perinatal transmission<br />

No HIV embryopathy described<br />

1/3 of perinatal transmission occurs in utero<br />

2/3 of perinatal transmission occurs in post partum<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

Screen with EIA<br />

Confirm with Western Blot<br />

May require repeat test if recent exposure or indeterminate WB<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

AZT from 14-34 weeks gestation<br />

Mode of delivery – CS (IV AZT 3 hours before section +/- nevaripine)<br />

HIV viral load – proportional risk of transmission at delivery<br />

o V1 10000 9-29%<br />

ROM > 4 hours (x4 fold increase in risk)<br />

Avoidance of invasive procedures (foetal scalp electrodes, episiotomy etc)<br />

Recommend bottle feeding (x2 risk of breast feeding)<br />

Follow up with 6 weeks of AZT to infant and cotrimoxazole for 3 months<br />

Follow infant – t cell subsets, PCR, virus isolation, HIV ab<br />

4. Occur at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Although low prevalence in population –<br />

o 50% of HIV + pregnant women are unaware of their HIV status<br />

o 66% of HIV + pregnant women have no risk factors<br />

Risk factors:<br />

o Recipients of blood product or human tissue prior to 1985<br />

o Past history of IVDU<br />

o Partner of IVDU or resident/partner for high prevalence area<br />

o Bisexual relationship<br />

o Seroconversion illness


Hepatitis B<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage<br />

High risk groups<br />

Areas of high prevalence<br />

Household contacts of carriers<br />

Multiple sexual partners<br />

Tattoos, body piercing<br />

If HBsAg negative offer vaccination post partum<br />

Ensure screening and vaccination of family members<br />

Sag pos+ eag - - vertical transmission 5-20%<br />

Sag+ eag+ - vertical transmission 70-90%<br />

90% of infected infants become chronic carriers<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

Yes: HBsAg; if positive HBeAb HBeAg<br />

LFT‟s and DNA if abnormal LFT‟s<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

No need for C/S<br />

HBIg (0.5ml) and HBV vaccine (0.5ml imi)<br />

Breast feeding: - although detectable HBV DNA in breast milk – no added<br />

transmission risk demonstrated<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Note that universal screening recommended as earlier attempt at<br />

identifying a risk group was not successful<br />

Hepatitis C<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage<br />

If mother HCV Ab pos and HCV RNA PCR negative – prenatal<br />

transmission 0%<br />

If mother HCV Ab pos and HCV RNA PCR positive – prenatal<br />

transmission 0%<br />

Coinfection with HIV – prenatal transmission 9-45%<br />

Transmission proportional to RNA load<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

Yes<br />

HCV Ab – but need to confirm with a second assay with different<br />

antigenic matrix:<br />

RIBA may be useful to sort out in determinates or discordant serology<br />

Also HCV RNA/PCR viral load<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

No clear evidence re mode of delivery and reduction of perinatal<br />

transmission<br />

Breastfeeding: no increased risk of transmission demonstrated<br />

Most uninfected infants HCV Ab negative at 12 months<br />

Follow up infant HCV Ab at 12-18 months<br />

Or if concerned earlier HCV Ab and HCV RNA PCR<br />

If infected LFT‟s and HCV RNA PCR<br />

Refer for possible therapy (IFN and Ribaviron)<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Detection allows evaluation of treatment in the mother post partum


CMV<br />

VZV<br />

HSV<br />

1. Detect foetal damage or well being of the mother<br />

Leading cause of congenital infection; (0.3- 2%) of live births<br />

Approx 6/1000 pregnancies<br />

Diagnosis: 40-50% risk of transmission<br />

Symptomatic disease 10% (normal 10%; sequelae 90%)<br />

Asymptomatic disease 90% (normal 90%: sequelae eg deafness 10%)<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available – limitations<br />

Asymptomatic v infectious mononucleosis syndrome<br />

IgM EIA 75% sensitivity and specificity<br />

May persist for months or years after primary infection<br />

Reappear with reactivation or reinfection<br />

False positives – other herpes viruses, pregnancy, autoimmune disease<br />

Serial rise in antibody levels v seroconversion v avidity<br />

May require ultrasound (30-50% sensitivity; Amniocentesis PCR +/- foetal<br />

serology<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

None effective for either prevention of transmission or for effective<br />

treatment of congenital CMV<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Risk groups<br />

Day care workers – seroconversion 11% per annum<br />

Parents with child in day care – 20- 30% per annum<br />

General population – 2-3% seroconversion per annum<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage<br />

CVS<br />

20 weeks – isolated case reports – zoster in infancy<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

Yes for wild disease<br />

No for past vaccination status<br />

VZVIgM; also VZV PCR for acute diagnosis<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

Passive immunisation VZV IgG < 96 hours<br />

Acyclovir to protect mother from severe varicella zoster not necessarily<br />

the foetus<br />

T2<br />

Underlying lung disease<br />

Immunocompromised<br />

Smoker<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Common – however 90 +% immune; increasingly likelihood of varicella<br />

vaccine immunity<br />

1. Detect potential foetal infection and damage


NA<br />

2. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

Limited probably to detection of discordant partners in pregnancy<br />

HSV positive male and HSV negative female at risk of primary HSV<br />

infection in pregnancy<br />

Risk when primary infection occurring at delivery – 50%<br />

3. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

Practice safe sex at time from 36 weeks<br />

4. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening ?<br />

Parvovirus<br />

Detect potential foetal infection and damage<br />

Not teratogenic<br />

Foetal hydrops – intrauterine transfusion<br />

1. Sensitive and specific reliable assay available<br />

IgM –<br />

IgG – Immune status<br />

Recent infection ? recent infection, susceptible, immune<br />

Repeat in 2-4 weeks after exposure or if symptoms occur<br />

2. Availability of a safe effective intervention strategy if detected<br />

Foetal hydrops – intrauterine transfusion<br />

Ultrasound<br />

3. Occurs at a frequency that has a cost benefit for the screening<br />

Diagnosis of infection following contact or illness with rash during<br />

pregnancy<br />

Common non notifiable infection


Question 1, Marker 2<br />

What is the role of antenatal serology in modern medical practice and why?<br />

Role to allow intervention<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Opportunity to terminate pregnancy/counsel re possible outcomes of<br />

pregnancy<br />

Prevent transmission<br />

Prevent infection/sequelae of infection if transmission occurs<br />

Allow early therapeutic intervention/monitoring of infant<br />

Opportunistic screening of women who are presenting to health care workers<br />

Discussion points:<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Screening vs symptomatic<br />

Universal vs targeted<br />

Cost effective<br />

Timing of screening eg preconception/early „booking‟ bloods ~ 12 weeks +/-<br />

later in pregnancy<br />

<br />

Australia<br />

<br />

<br />

If no useful intervention or cost/benefit not favourable then screening not<br />

recommended. Confirmatory testing – may involve further cost, anxiety,<br />

procedures eg amniocentesis, foetal blood sampling – risks to pregnancy<br />

Hepatitis B surface antigen – passive and active immunisation at birth<br />

prevents > 95% transmission<br />

Rubella IgG – if non immune vaccinate post partum


Syphilis – treatment of mother and monitoring/treatment of infant<br />

HIV – treatment of mother and infant<br />

Hepatitis C (medicare rebate will now cover this) counsel/monitor<br />

infant/caesarean may reduce transmission<br />

Other countries<br />

Toxoplasma – France – monitor seronegative women in pregnancy, offer treatment if<br />

seroconvert<br />

Issues<br />

Screening for eg MCV, VZV, parvovirus, HSV 1 and 2<br />

<br />

Testing if symptomatic or exposure<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

Timing of exposure relevant<br />

Rash – parvovirus, VZV, Rubella<br />

Exposure eg VZV – VZIG


Question 3, Marker 1<br />

What do you consider the essential features of a microbiology laboratory<br />

information system? Describe the main features you would consider when<br />

choosing a new LIS and how would you ensure its smooth implementation?<br />

Candidates should be able to discuss 5-7 points well<br />

Essential features<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Data entry efficient: Screens, click through, ease of use, and enable paperless<br />

workflow<br />

Interface with machines<br />

Audit trails<br />

Expert rules: CAR, insert comments, suppress reporting<br />

On-line worksheets, validation and record of communications<br />

Tag pathogens: nosocomial, notification<br />

Antibiogram and other data extracts<br />

Management reports, epidemiology<br />

Autovalidation with blood cultures<br />

Data fields and c compliant with 15189 requirements<br />

Response time, IT architecture<br />

Vendor support<br />

Storage – in-house v commercial<br />

Implementation<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Evaluation process: operational IT architecture, IT and professional (practice)<br />

considerations<br />

Set up databases, dictionaries, codes and rules, plan and time line<br />

Test environment before going live<br />

Staff training


Test and verify interfaces, data transfer epidemiology reports and extracts<br />

System to make and track changes<br />

Verify data transfer<br />

Change management, benefit patient, physicians, lab staff<br />

LIS team or rep<br />

Objectives<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Operational efficiency<br />

Reduce errors<br />

Enhance patient care


Question 3, Marker 2<br />

What do you consider the essential features of a microbiology laboratory<br />

information system? Describe the main features you would consider when<br />

choosing a new LIS and how would you ensure its smooth implementation?<br />

Candidates should be able to discuss 5-7 points well<br />

Basic essential features<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Robust technical specification<br />

Referential integrity<br />

Security<br />

Resilience<br />

Traceability<br />

Auditable by ad hoc enquiry<br />

Capacity<br />

Speed<br />

Paperless<br />

Other essential features<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

User friendly graphic interface<br />

User privileges commensurate with needs<br />

Flexible user configuration without the need to involve the vendor, e.g. users,<br />

facilities, work lists, reporting lists, report formats, comments, laboratories,<br />

referral laboratories, test codes, comment codes, organism codes,<br />

susceptibility panels, susceptibility suppression rules etc.<br />

Adequate patient identification and demographic fields


Automated barcode label generation<br />

Flexible interfacing to instruments and other peripherals<br />

Data accession from external databases, e.g. from clinical PMI<br />

Auditable free text lab user notes linked to specific lab numbers/tests<br />

Ability to scan and store requests to meet Medicare Australia requirements<br />

Multi-site capability with flexible pre- analytical systems for specimen<br />

accession and tracking<br />

Streamlined validation of data transfer from interfaced instrumentation<br />

Ability to trace user for each step in pre- analytical, analytical and postanalytical<br />

process<br />

Multi-step validation process including final pathologist validation<br />

Automatic fax capability for results<br />

Secure and verifiable transfer of results to external information systems with<br />

no corruption of date type or content<br />

Functional billing module to meet accountancy standards and Medicare<br />

Australia requirements<br />

System compliant with NPAAC standards<br />

System compliant with ISO quality system requirements<br />

User friendly and flexible search functions including the ability to search for<br />

bulk data satisfying user defined criteria.<br />

Automated notification of notifiable diseases<br />

Ability to notify infection control practitioners of relevant results<br />

Real time secure access to up to date validated laboratory information for<br />

clinical users preferably through a continuously updated application separate<br />

from the LIS and not effected by LIS scheduled or unscheduled downtime<br />

Desirable<br />

<br />

Electronic order entry with lab configurable essential fields, test rules and<br />

prompts<br />

Implementation<br />

<br />

<br />

Chose the right system<br />

Planning and training with adequate resources including dedicated staff


Question 4, Marker 1<br />

Laboratory notification of MRSA has been proposed. Present your reasons for and<br />

against this proposal.<br />

Background<br />

MRSA endemic in hospitals in eastern Australia since 1980‟s<br />

<br />

<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

Healthcare associated (HCA) MRSA is predominately EA- MRSA<br />

(ST93-MRSA-III) – multi- resistant<br />

EMRSA-15 (UK) (ST22-MRSA- IV) recently introduced – resistant to<br />

cip or cip/ery and urease negative<br />

Prevalence still increasing in NSW and Vic but decreasing in QLD<br />

SA level intermediate<br />

WA low level but EMRSA-15 perdominates<br />

Other overseas strains also seen some of which have marked epidemic<br />

potential<br />

Increasing consensus that HCA MRSA can be controlled best with screening<br />

and isolation and the standard measures including standard hand hygiene are<br />

inadequate<br />

Therefore, evidence exists for widely varying rates of HCA MRSA throughout<br />

Australia and for opportunities to optimise MRSA IC measures. Notification<br />

would provide for benchmarking and monitoring of progress in efforts to<br />

combat the nosocomial MRSA problem.<br />

New strains of MRSA have appeared in the community since the late 1980‟s<br />

in WA and mid 1990‟s elsewhere. The major strains are:<br />

<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

ST1-MRSA-IV (WA-1) _ PVL neg<br />

ST30-MRSA-IV (WWSP1/2, southwest Pacific, Oceania) – PVL pos<br />

ST93-MRSA-IV (QLD) – PVL pos<br />

Many other strains are also seen indicating active acquisition of SCCmec by<br />

multiple lineages


For<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

This epidemic in gaining pace throughout Australia and ST93 in increasing<br />

rapidly and will probably overtake ST1 as the predominant strain<br />

PVL – give explanation<br />

PVL positive strains associated with furunculosis, and occasionally<br />

necrotising pneumonia, osteomyelitis (+septic thrombophebitis and PE in<br />

children), septicaemia. Fatal cases occur in young otherwise healthy children<br />

and adults.<br />

MRSA bacteraemia is a major issue as is S. aureus bacteraemia in general and<br />

is now being studied nationally (ANZCOSS). Thousands of cases are thought<br />

to occur annually with a mortality of approx. 30% (probably higher for<br />

MRSA)<br />

All of the above provides rationale for notification and intervention<br />

Intervention in CA-MRSA has occurred successfully in Denmark and is now<br />

being tried in WA. Contact tracing (household contacts) – increased hygiene,<br />

mupirocin, phisohex or chlorhexidine washes and follow up screening<br />

Establish baseline and benchmark<br />

Identify problem areas for intervention<br />

Evidence for successful HCA intervention strategies based on targeted<br />

screening and isolation is available and increased hand hygiene has also<br />

apparently been successful as an intervention in some settings<br />

Reduction of HCA MRSA has shown to reduce morbidity and mortality and to<br />

be cost effective in terms of overall health budget (through reducing<br />

morbidity, mortality and LOS)<br />

Establish population rates of CA MRSA<br />

Provide guidance to practitioners at a local level (empiric therapy etc.)<br />

Allow for community intervention<br />

Against<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Potential for stigmatisation of institutions based on MRSA rates<br />

Perception that intervention may be associated with increased costs<br />

Insufficient resources may be provided to labs or service providers to make the<br />

program work successfully<br />

Increased litigation may follow at the instigation of unscrupulous legal firms


Question 6, Marker 1<br />

List the samples that you would examine for fungi. Include how and why you<br />

would do this and when you would undertake sensitivity testing and referral to a<br />

reference laboratory.<br />

Samples<br />

Skin<br />

Scraping<br />

Hair<br />

Nails<br />

Biopsy tissue<br />

Respiratory<br />

Sputum<br />

Induced sputum<br />

Bronchoscopy specimens<br />

Aspirates<br />

Rarely pleural effusions<br />

Ear Swabs<br />

Sinus swabs include – tissue<br />

Urinary tract<br />

Urine catheters<br />

Renal disease<br />

Gastrointestinal<br />

Rare need<br />

Genital tract<br />

High vaginal swabs


Eyes<br />

Corneal scrapings – fungal keratitis<br />

Aqueous vitreous humour<br />

Tissue biopsies of any kind<br />

E.g. disseminated disease<br />

Brain<br />

Adrenals<br />

Thyroid<br />

Blood cultures<br />

Candidemias or fungemias<br />

How and why<br />

Media<br />

SAB (+ chlor, gent) 25-30C<br />

SD (SAB + cycoheximide) = MYCOSEL or (actidione) + (chlo + gent) 25-<br />

30C<br />

DTM = (chlo + gent + cycl) 25-30C<br />

SAB without antibiotics (may use for tissues from sterile sites)<br />

Chromogenic agar<br />

Dixons or overlay with olive oil for M.furfur from blood and occas skin but<br />

generally not indicated as microscopy sufficient from skin – 37C<br />

Set up in tubes to prevent drying as media held 3-4 weeks<br />

Avoid opening lids unless growth to prevent contamination<br />

Sporing for microscopy<br />

OA<br />

SACHs<br />

PDA – slide cultures/species etc<br />

CMA<br />

Basic techniques<br />

Macroscopic description of colonies<br />

Colour – surface reverse etc<br />

Appearance<br />

Microscopy from sample<br />

Hyphae – hyaline<br />

Hyphae – pigmented – T.nigra and other demateaciuos fungi<br />

Spores<br />

Yeast cells<br />

Pseudohyphae<br />

Copper pennies (Chromo) – SAB 28<br />

Spaghetti meat ball – M.f<br />

Microscopy of colonies<br />

Microconidia<br />

Macrocondidia<br />

Chlamydospores<br />

Other techniques<br />

Dimorphism demonstration: Mycelial conversion at 28 to Yeast at 37<br />

Exoantigen test – Histoplasmosis<br />

Differential temps of incubation<br />

Canavanine to speciate Cryptococcus – gattii v neoformans: association with<br />

HIV and prognosis


Bird seed – to confirm Crypto<br />

Ectoag test e.e. confirmation of culture Histoplasmosis esp when dimorphism<br />

difficult<br />

Vitek or API if not conclusive for yeast identification<br />

Details<br />

Skin and subcutaneous infections<br />

Specimens<br />

Scraping<br />

Hair<br />

Nails<br />

Biopsy tissue<br />

Diseases:<br />

Superficial: Pityriasis Versicolor (Malazzesia, Tinea Nigra) – Dixons<br />

Cutaneous: Dermatophytes – onychomycosis, tinea capitus and tinea<br />

<br />

corporis/cruris/pedis<br />

Subcutaneous: Sporo, Chrom, opportunists (Coelomycetes etc) traumatic<br />

implantation<br />

Collection:<br />

Scrapings, clippings, hair – adequate specimen an issue<br />

Microscopy<br />

calcofluor white/Evans blue in glycerol KOH, Calcofluor, - hyphae<br />

(allows terbinafine on PBS), spaghetti and meatballs = Malazessia furfur<br />

Culture media: SAB, SD, DTM<br />

Incubation 28C<br />

Duration 3 weeks<br />

Identification<br />

Edothrix, Ectothrix<br />

Anthropophilic, Zoophilic, Geophilic – management/source of infection<br />

Infection control issues<br />

New innovations: PCR<br />

Subcutaneous infections:<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Sporo – S.schenkii (dimorphism)<br />

Chromoblastomycoses<br />

o Cladiophilaophora grows on clclo 37<br />

o Fonseca<br />

Systemic infections with skin manifestations<br />

Often grow on the MCS blood agar at 37C e.g Fusarium<br />

Respiratory<br />

Respiratory<br />

Grow on routine bacto plates – normal flora: SAB (ABS) 25-30C, SD 25-<br />

30C + BHI (ABS0 (35)<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Nocardias on BHI<br />

Aspergillus spp, Scedospoium prolificans apiosperman<br />

Cryptococcus sensitive to cycloheximide<br />

Note lab safety issues: white fluffy fungi esp from resp tract but other<br />

tissues as well- arthroconidia of Coccidioides etc lab hazard<br />

DFA/silver staining/toluidine blue/PCR with quantification on respiratory<br />

specimens in immunosuppressed patients who have ground glass<br />

appearance suggestive of PCP (NB also stain with calcoflur)


Urinary tract<br />

Urine catheters/Renal disease<br />

Mainly candida – standard urine set up<br />

Germ tube<br />

Gastrointestinal<br />

Rare need<br />

Genital tract<br />

Mainly Candida – standard genital set up<br />

Correlate with microscopy<br />

Intractable vaginitis – may require speciation and sensitivity testing e.g.<br />

glabrata<br />

Tissue biopsies of any kind<br />

SABS (no Abs) SAB (Abs_ 25-30C, SD 25- 30C, BHI 25- 30C<br />

e.g. disseminated disease, brain, adrenals<br />

NB Zygomycetes – don‟t grind – non viable<br />

Blood cultures<br />

Liquid blood culture media (BacT Alert – good for mould and Candida)<br />

Lysis centrifugation<br />

Non-culture methods<br />

18S RNA PCR<br />

Galactoma Nan and other assay for Aspergillosis – monitoring function x<br />

2 weekly<br />

Susceptibility testing<br />

Often susceptibilities – predictable<br />

Relatively new – only just standardised<br />

Difficulties<br />

Inoculum preparation<br />

End point reading<br />

Fresh 24 H culture on SAB<br />

Methods<br />

CLSI – standardised guidelines – methods for yeast and moulds<br />

Difficult to do if only occasional<br />

Yeasts<br />

o Broth dilution M27-A2 standard for yeasts<br />

o RPMI<br />

o 24 hour reads<br />

o Trailing endpoints<br />

o Breakpoints for 24 and 48 hours<br />

o Numerical score 1 -4<br />

Commercial products:<br />

o Sensititer<br />

• AMB<br />

• FLU<br />

• ITRA<br />

• KETA<br />

• 5FC<br />

• VORI<br />

• POSI<br />

• CAS


o Disc diffusion<br />

• M$$-P standard for yeasts<br />

• For Candida species<br />

• Fluconazole (25ug) and Voriconazole (1ug)<br />

• MH glucose and MB<br />

Moulds<br />

o Yeasts easier than moulds<br />

o Broth dilution M38-A<br />

o RPMI 1640 glutamine<br />

E Strip<br />

o End points often difficult to read<br />

o Trailing ……..<br />

Neosensitabs<br />

Indications<br />

Unusual fungi where susceptibility less difficult to predict – difficulties with<br />

breakpoints<br />

Epidemiological purposes to accumulate invitro knowledge and correlation<br />

within vivo response<br />

Candida spp where prior imidazole therapy and possibility of resistance<br />

developing or selection of innately resistant Candida e.g. C.krusei<br />

Genital tract – glabrate and non response to imidazole<br />

Synergy voriconazole and terbinafine<br />

Non response to treatment<br />

Candidemias – especially non albicans (possible SDD or R to fluconazole)<br />

options: echinocandidin; caspofungin, ?voriconazole, posiconazole (esp<br />

Mucor)<br />

When to refer<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Sterile site isolate – difficult to identify<br />

e.g. non sporing<br />

Where fungus may be a laboratory hazard and appropriate facilities<br />

unavailable<br />

Confirm sensitivities and perform synergy testing<br />

Use of newer modalities – presence in histology or microscopy but culture<br />

negative e.g pan fungal PCR<br />

Specialised serological tests e.g galactoma Nan in immunosuppressed patients


Question 10, Marker 1<br />

Multi resistant M tuberculosis (XDR) is being increasingly isolated world wide.<br />

Define XDR and discuss the detection and laboratory implications of the emergence<br />

of XDR mycobacteria.<br />

Definitions<br />

<br />

<br />

Drug resistant TB – One first line drug<br />

Multidrug resistant TB (XDR) – Resistant to INH+Rif AND fluroquinolones<br />

+ kanamycin, amikacin or capreomycin (ie resistant to both first and second<br />

line drugs)<br />

Brief overview<br />

XDR epidemiology (up to 10% of MTB in Russia, India, China) emergence in<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Detection<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Africa, Iran and United States<br />

Rates in Australia<br />

Risk factors for acquisitions<br />

Previous treated TB, inappropriate treatment (see WHO guidelines), HIV<br />

coinfection, poor compliance, poor nutritional state, low socioeconomic status<br />

Mortality increase<br />

Clinical suspicion – previous treated TB, travel to or from an endemic region,<br />

clinical failure of standard regimes, HIV infection<br />

Standard laboratory detection and identification of MRB – ZN of sputum<br />

smears, Aura mine/Rhodamine, decontamination, culture in a liquid media,<br />

confirmation by standard phenotypic methods or molecular detection<br />

Phenotypic methods are more likely to be used in regions where the organism<br />

is prevalent.<br />

Growth characteristics and ZN appearance in broth, Nitrate, Niacin, Semi<br />

quant catalase, NAP, Pyruvate/glycerol growth, Tween 80 hydroslysis,<br />

Pyrazinamidase<br />

Molecular identification or detection, either from an isolate or from a clinical<br />

specimen<br />

o DNA-DNA hybridisation<br />

o IS6110 PCR detection<br />

Susceptibility testing


o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

Agar dilution – Middlebrook 7H11. Traditional method. Results<br />

expressed as resistance rations MIC test divided by MIC control<br />

Broth method – growth inhibition – Bactec, MGIT<br />

Molectlar detection of mutations in resistance associated genes. E.g.<br />

INH- katG, inhA, kasA, Rifampicin – rpoB, Streptomycin – s12,<br />

pyrazinamide – either phenotypic detection of pyrazinamidase or<br />

pncA, ethambutol embB<br />

Laboratory implications<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Safety and compliance with Australian standards<br />

XDR is a risk group 3 organism<br />

To be handled in a PC 3 laboratory – define<br />

Staff need appropriate training and experience<br />

Staff need BCG if Mantoux negative, regular CXR<br />

Dedicated space and equipment<br />

Increased testing, typing of isolates<br />

Liaison with Public Health<br />

Standardised methods and awareness of current WHO definitions and<br />

requirements<br />

Participation in an appropriate QAP


Question 10, Marker 2<br />

Multi resistant M tuberculosis (XDR) is being increasingly isolated world wide.<br />

Define XDR and discuss the detection and laboratory implications of the emergence<br />

of XDR mycobacteria.<br />

Answer<br />

XDR TB: detection and laboratory implications<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Drug resistant TB = isolate of MTB resistant to one of the 1 st line anti TB drugs;<br />

isoniazid, rifampicin, pytazinamide, ethambutol and streptomycin<br />

Multi drug resistant TB (MDR-TB) = isolate resistant to at least isoniazid and<br />

rifampicin<br />

Treatment for MDR TB patients use of 2 nd line drugs for greater than or equal to<br />

12 months<br />

MDR TB patients whose isolates are resistant to any fluoroquinolone and<br />

resistant to at least on 2 nd line injectable drug (amikacin, capreomycin or<br />

kanamycin) have been classified as extensively drug resistant (XDR-TB)<br />

(revised definition from WHO task force Oct 2006). An earlier definition of<br />

XDR TB was MDR TB + resistant to greater than or equal to 3 of the 2 nd line<br />

drugs. 2 nd line drugs (SLD‟s) include aminoglycosides, capreomycin,<br />

fluorquinolones, thiomides, cycloserine, para-aminosalicyclic acid<br />

The rationale for the revised definition: (i) protocols for drug<br />

susceptibility testing of fluoroquinolones and injectable anti<br />

TB agents are established and there is good inter laboratory<br />

agreement; there is less agreement for the other SLD‟s and<br />

none whatsoever for cycloserine, (ii) the fluoroquinolones<br />

and injectable agents are the most potent SLD‟s and form the<br />

corner stones of most MDR TB treatment regimes and (iii)<br />

are often the only SLD‟s available in developing countries.<br />

Losing the FQs and the injectable agents means losing the most potent and least<br />

toxic options for the 2 nd line therapy<br />

XDR TB is now documented in many countries – highest known rates in Eastern<br />

Europe and Asia<br />

XDR TB is a microbiological diagnosis – documenting the emergence of XDR<br />

TB requires the collection and processing of adequate specimens for culture and<br />

susceptibility testing, prior to institution of therapy.<br />

If a patient cannot produce expectorate sputum, sputum<br />

induction should be performed with necessary protection of<br />

supervising HCW e.g sputum collection and cough-inducing<br />

procedures should be performed in negative pressure ventilation<br />

rooms. HCWs should wear respiratory protection when present<br />

in room or enclosure in which cough-inducing procedures are<br />

being performed on patients who my have infectious TB. These<br />

high-risk patients should also be managed appropriately before<br />

and after specimen collection to limit cross-infection to other<br />

patients and to HCWs.


Collection of tissue for those with extrapulmonary disease e.g.<br />

lymph node, bone omentum<br />

Smear results reported within 24 hours<br />

All specimens should be inoculated in broth-based culture<br />

system +/- onto solid media<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Susceptibility testing should be performed by a reference laboratory<br />

The DSTs must be performed using a broth-based culture system so that results<br />

are available promptly. Using these methods, laboratories should aim to report<br />

MTBC DST results within an average of 15-30 days from the time of the<br />

original specimen reception. The DSTs themselves can generally be completed<br />

within 7-14 days of obtaining the initial M. tuberculosis isolate from the primary<br />

cultures<br />

Drug susceptibility tests must be performed in the following circumstances:<br />

All initial isolates of M. tuberculosis<br />

Isolates from patients who remain culture-positive after 3<br />

months of treatment<br />

Isolates from patients who are clinically failing treatment: or<br />

An initial isolated from a patient relapsing after previously<br />

successful TB treatment. 14,15<br />

Second line drug susceptibility tests should be performed on:<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

All MDR TB isolates (i.e. isolated demonstrating isoniazid and rifampicin<br />

resistance)<br />

All isolates demonstrating resistance to greater than or equal to 2 first line drugs<br />

and<br />

Isolates from patients experiencing severe adverse reactions to first line agents<br />

Laboratories performing susceptibility testing must be involved with an external<br />

quality assurance program<br />

Laboratories performing susceptibility tests should ideally have PC3 facilities<br />

At this time – WHO does not recommend testing of thioamides, cycloserine or<br />

PAS as reproducibility of testing is poor. Testing of a fluoriqyubikibe (cuori ir<br />

ifkixacub) then moxifloxacin if cipro/oflox is resistant, an aminoglycoside<br />

(amidacin and/or kanamycin) and capromycin


Question 11, Marker 1<br />

Describe, with examples, the full laboratory investigation of CSF obtained by<br />

lumbar puncture.<br />

Specimen arrives in laboratory<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Next<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Check name and details on sample match the request slip<br />

Macroscopic appearance<br />

o<br />

o<br />

o<br />

Is it clear?<br />

Is it bloodstained?<br />

• all tubes evenly bloodstained – subarachnoid haemorrhage<br />

more likely<br />

• blood staining decreases from tube 1 to later tubes – traumatic<br />

tap more likely<br />

Turbid – meningitis more likely xanthochromias<br />

Record volume of CSF (prefer at least 1 ml)<br />

If possible leave a tube for any PCR work which may be required (usually<br />

tube 4)<br />

Take sample of fluid with sterile pipette from each of tubes 1-3 and examine<br />

under the microscope in a counting chamber with cell grain e.g. (cell count)<br />

??????????<br />

In a traumatic tap, no of RBC‟s usually decreases in each successive tube<br />

taken.<br />

In meningitis, little difference between each tube


Normal cell count


Common CSF findings<br />

Viral<br />

Meningitis<br />

Bacterial<br />

Menignitis<br />

Cryptococcal<br />

meningitis<br />

TB<br />

meningitis<br />

Viral<br />

encephalitis<br />

Protein Glucose Cells Gm<br />

stain<br />

Bacterial<br />

culture<br />

Comments<br />

No or No Predominately Neg Neg Can do<br />

Slightly<br />

Lymphs<br />

enterovirus<br />

raised<br />

(some pdys<br />

PCR<br />

Raised<br />

Raised<br />

Raised<br />

No or<br />

raised<br />

day 1-3)<br />

Decreased May be pos,<br />

predominately<br />

pdys<br />

No or<br />

decreased<br />

Predominately<br />

lymphs<br />

Decreased Predominately<br />

lymphs<br />

No<br />

Predominately<br />

lymphs<br />

May be<br />

positive<br />

May be<br />

pos (Abs<br />

suggested)<br />

Neg Neg Can do<br />

India ink<br />

stain &<br />

CSF<br />

crypto AG<br />

Neg<br />

TB<br />

culture<br />

slow often<br />

6-8 weeks<br />

Can do<br />

AFB often<br />

neg TB<br />

PCR or<br />

LCX<br />

Neg Neg Can do<br />

HSV PCR<br />

<br />

Bacterial antigens no longer done – poor sensitivity and specificity.<br />

Extra tests<br />

Rarely useful unless abnormal protein/glucose/cell count<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

crytpococcal antigen<br />

India ink stain (Cryptococcus)<br />

TB PCR/LCX<br />

AFB stain – rarely positive, need a lot of cells<br />

TB culture (6-8 weeks)<br />

HSV 1 & 2 PCR<br />

Enterovirus PCR<br />

JC virus PCR<br />

Meningococcal PCR<br />

Syphilis serology e.g. RPR, PTHA


Question 11, Marker 2<br />

Describe, with examples, the full laboratory investigation of CSF obtained by<br />

lumbar puncture.<br />

General points<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Emphasise how the nature and extent of testing is dictated by information<br />

about the patient:<br />

Importance of reading the history given<br />

Necessity of obtaining more history or speaking directly to the clinician, if<br />

indicated, both on receipt of specimen and when early results are available<br />

(microscopy, protein, glucose) as this may direct further investigations.<br />

Discuss the tests which are routinely performed<br />

Discuss testing which might be performed at the discretion of the<br />

microbiologist. (Perhaps discuss what testing in not indicated or is of limited<br />

benefit in some situations)<br />

Indicate how to prioritise testing when sample volume is limited.<br />

Microscopy<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Routine cell counts and interpretation of these<br />

Investigation of abnormal cells – eosinophils, cells with abnormal morphology<br />

Visual detection of organisms (include dark field microscopy for spirochaetes)


Organism identification<br />

Bacteria<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Fungi<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Viruses<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

<br />

Choice of media, conditions of culture<br />

Non-cultural detection of bacterial infection<br />

o Ag detection<br />

o PCR<br />

Tests for tuberculosis<br />

o AFB staining<br />

o Culture<br />

o PCR (discuss methods)<br />

o (Chemical tests eg. adenine deaminase)<br />

Tests for syphilis<br />

o Especially critical evaluation for evidence of neurosyphilis<br />

Tests for Cryptococcus<br />

o Testing and significance of Ag detection<br />

o Serial CSF testing in evaluation of success of therapy<br />

Testing for other fungi e.g. dimorphic fungi<br />

CNS aspergillosis and other invasive mycoses<br />

Culture<br />

Noncultural methods especially PCRs<br />

Test selection for meningitis, encephalitis<br />

Special testing:<br />

o HIV – viral load<br />

o Testing in travellers e.g. arboviruses<br />

o Tests in immune-compromised patients e.g. EBV infection, JC virus<br />

o Testing for SSPE<br />

Parasites<br />

Diagnosis of CNS toxoplasmosis, cysticercosis, amoebic meningoencephalitis,<br />

African trypanosomiasis, angiostrongyliasis etc<br />

Prions<br />

Safety considerations


Mock exam Queensland trainees <strong>2007</strong><br />

General points:<br />

1. It is important to define your subject and to answer the question carefully and<br />

accurately<br />

2. If your writing is not easy to read try spacing out your words and leaving a<br />

line between the lines. You will not lose marks for underlining and ruling off.<br />

etc<br />

3. You must also answer each question ONLY for the time allotted. You will<br />

Not get more marks for spending twice the time on one section. 5 questions,<br />

20 marks each, 4 sections/ question = 5 marks per section. If you miss one<br />

section out you are immediately down 5 points.<br />

Question 2: Write short notes on:<br />

LGV Lymphogranuloma venereum<br />

Streptococcus gallolyticus<br />

Serological methods for the detection of deep seated mycoses<br />

The hazards of rain water tanks<br />

<strong>Answers</strong><br />

Lymphomgranuloma venereum:<br />

LGV is a sexually transmitted disease. It was originally described in 1833 by<br />

Wallace . Synonyms include Lymphopathia venerea, tropical bubo, climatic bubo and<br />

lymphgranuloma inguinale. It is caused by serovars L1, L2 and L3 of C trachomatis.<br />

It enters via skin breaks or abrasions or it crosses the epithelial cells of mucous<br />

membranes. It enters the lymphatics and multiplies within the mononuclear<br />

phagocytes in the regional lymph nodes.<br />

While transmission is mainly sexual fomites and laboratory accidents have been<br />

reported to cause disease.<br />

LGV occurs in 3 stages .<br />

Stage 1 is the formation of a painless herpetiform ulcer at the site of entry .<br />

Stage 2 is characterised by lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms. Including<br />

fever, headache, nausea, vomiting and arthralgias Suppuration occurs later and the<br />

nodes may coalesce. Clinically they can be confused with cat scratch disease and TB.<br />

Histological appearances are said to be diagnostic.<br />

Stage 3 occurs years after the initial infection and may present as rectal stricture or<br />

genital elephantiasis. Organisms are rarely present at this stage.


Extragenital inoculation sites also produce regional lymphadenopathy.<br />

LGV is endemic in Northern Australia. And internationally is found in East and West<br />

Africa, India, Southeast Asia, South Caribbean. There have been recent outbreaks in<br />

Europe associated with MSM<br />

Symptoms resolve completely with appropriate treatment but death can occur in<br />

unresolved tertiary illness from associated symptoms.<br />

Incubation period is 3-21 days, secondary stage occurs after 10-30 days<br />

Risk factors include unprotected sexual intercourse from an infected individual, anal<br />

intercourse, prostitution, residing in an endemic area<br />

Lab studies are usually unhelpful. The Frei was an intradermal skin hypersensitivity<br />

test that is no longer available. CF testing sensitivity is 80% for LGV, a titre of 1/16<br />

is suggestive and a changing titre may be diagnostic. MIF for the L serovar is<br />

diagnostic if the titre is 1:512, PCR is superior if it is available. Serology for syphilis<br />

should be undertaken as the patient may have other STD‟s.<br />

Doxycycline is the drug of choice for treatment in a dose of 100 mg bd for 21 days.<br />

Infection confers no immunity against future infection<br />

Contacts should be examined and patients counselled to use safe sex practices.<br />

References:<br />

CDC fact sheet: http://www.cdc.gov/std/lgv/STDFact-LGV.htm<br />

Streptococcus gallolyticus<br />

Strep bovis/Strep equinus is a large bacterial complex including different species<br />

frequently isolated from humans and animals.<br />

Strep bovis has been separated in to 3 different biotypes correlated with genetic<br />

differentiation. S bovis biotype 2, S gallolyticus S macedonicus and S waius form a<br />

single DNA cluster separated in to 3 different sub species. They are delineated by<br />

different biochemical traits, limited DNA-DNA relatedness and divergent 16SrDNA<br />

sequences.<br />

In 1977 Klein reported a strong association between S bovis bacteraemia and colonic<br />

cancer.<br />

S gallolyticus is gram positive non motile, non sporulating, in pairs or short chains.<br />

Catalase is negative. Alpha or non haemolytic on blood agar, tellurite neg, and<br />

hydrolyses aesculin but does not grow on 6.5% NaCl and is PYR neg. They are<br />

group D streptococci.<br />

S gallolyticus is a mannitol hydrolysing strain and has tannase and gallate activity (<br />

decarboxylate gallic acid to pyrogallol and hydrolyse methyl gallate (tannase<br />

activity)). It was previously identified as S bovis biotype 1 and has been associated<br />

with endocarditis and colonic cancer. It is also found in marsupial stool including<br />

koala, kangaroo, brushtails and possums. There are 3 subspecies which can be<br />

separated by various biochemical tests.


Serological methods for detection of deep seated mycoses.<br />

1. List of deep seated mycoses. Candida sp, paracoccidiomycosis,<br />

histoplasmosis, zygomycosis including mucormycoses eg mucor, rhizopus,<br />

phycomycoses , aspergillosis. The type of mycosis will depend on the<br />

geographical region as some strains are very location dependent.<br />

2. Occurrence: Many of these infections occur in immunocompromised patients<br />

so the detection of IgM and Ig G antibodies is unreliable even if there were<br />

good antigens available to detect antibodies produced against these organisms.<br />

3. Serology is defined as the detection of antibodies or antigens in serum<br />

4. Commercial serological tests available: Candida antibodies latex<br />

agglutination) , galactomannin (detecting aspergillus antigen EIA),<br />

Histoplasma antibodies (CF), western blot,<br />

Microbial hazards associated with use of rain water tanks<br />

Airborne microbes and chemicals can enter rainwater tanks via water collection<br />

processes either directly from the atmosphere or indirectly by leaching of materials<br />

from water collection surfaces animal excreta, debris and organic waste can also<br />

accumulate. Biofilm will form when the concentration of dissolved organics falls<br />

below 25mg/L. these develop complexity in time and they may assist in removing<br />

contaminants but there has been little work undertaken to examine this. There is<br />

current research starting to examine this issue.<br />

Microbes found in water tanks are likely to survive because of the lack of inhibiting<br />

substances, eg chlorine, the absence of filters and the leaching of bird and animal<br />

excreta which may contain enteric bacteria such as salmonella, campylobacter and<br />

parasites such as Giardia, cryptosporidium<br />

Also risk of breeding of mosquitoes spreading dengue, malaria, RRV, BF, other<br />

arbovirus infections.<br />

Please leave feedback<br />

See next page


FEEDBACK<br />

Did you find this mock examination helpful?<br />

Please take a few minutes to complete an online survey by following the link<br />

below:<br />

http://www.surveymonkey.com/s.aspx?sm=XiNssreXTNnuGuH51_2fG9Fg_3d_3d

Hooray! Your file is uploaded and ready to be published.

Saved successfully!

Ooh no, something went wrong!