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1964 Awake! - Theocratic Collector.com

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JESUS CHRIST, in prayer to his Father<br />

on the night of his betrayal, said, among<br />

other things. "Your word is truth." Therefore<br />

all who would be his followers must,<br />

to be consistent, accept God's Word, the<br />

Bible, as truth.-John 17:17.<br />

But not so, says the modernist clergyman.<br />

Although claiming to be a Christian,<br />

he denies the inspiration of the Bible. And<br />

he considers the Bible to be the work not<br />

only of imperfect men hut of dishonest men<br />

at that. Thus a certain clergyman of the<br />

Church of Scotland claims to have scientific<br />

evidence that, of all the letters credited<br />

to the apostle Paul, only Romans, First<br />

and Second Corinthians, Galatians and perhaps<br />

Philemon were actually written by<br />

Paul and that the rest were written by<br />

several others.<br />

But how could this be if God's "word<br />

is truth"? Of the fourteen letters credited<br />

to Paul thirteen mention Paul as the writer<br />

from one to three times. Are we to conclude<br />

that all this logical Scriptural exposition,<br />

all this fine admonition is the<br />

work of forgers, a number of them at that,<br />

and yet writing so much alike? Every time<br />

Paul's name is mentioned in these letters<br />

it represents a lie if Paul did not write<br />

them.<br />

More than that, there are ever so many<br />

personal references in these letters, as<br />

when Paul refers to his prison bonds and<br />

his being acquainted with Timothy's mother<br />

and grandmother. If Paul did not write<br />

MAY 8, <strong>1964</strong><br />

these letters, then all such references are<br />

lies. And what about his use of the personal<br />

pronoun? In the letter to the Philippians<br />

alone he uses "I" more than sixty<br />

times. If he ,did not write that letter, then<br />

everyone of those sixty "I's" represents a<br />

lie.<br />

On what basis does this clergyman rest<br />

his radical conclusions? To quote him:<br />

"The results are convincing. The work is<br />

based on the principle that authors have<br />

certain habits of style deeply ingrained. For<br />

the present study we have considered such<br />

things as the space between the uses of the<br />

word 'and,' r('pctitive uses of the word, sentences<br />

beginning with the word and so on."<br />

By checking some dozen classical Greek<br />

writers, such as Aristotle, Plato and Socrates,<br />

and finding that each one of these<br />

writers has his o\vn way of using this<br />

Greek conjunction kal, he evolved a hypothesis<br />

that he tried out on the writings of<br />

Paul. In doing this work he depended upon<br />

an electrical <strong>com</strong>puter.-Toronto, Canada,<br />

Globe and Mail, February 26, 1963.<br />

What about this hypothesis? Is it sound?<br />

Must we conclude, on the basis of his style,<br />

that the nine or ten letters following Galatians<br />

in our Bibles were not written by<br />

Paul? Does the use of the very <strong>com</strong>mon<br />

Greek word kal, which may be translated<br />

not only "and" but "also," "even," and so<br />

forth, dictate this? No, and that for very<br />

<strong>com</strong>pelling reasons. The hypothesis is entirely<br />

unsound, for it makes <strong>com</strong>parisons<br />

between things that are not <strong>com</strong>parable.<br />

There is no question about the classical<br />

Greek writers, whose \vorks he used to<br />

develop his theory, having certain definite<br />

individual styles. For one thing, they<br />

wrote a great deal. They were concerned<br />

with style, with producing fine literature,<br />

with making a name for themselves as<br />

writers and so took time to stamp their individuality<br />

upon their works.<br />

How different from all these was the<br />

apostle Paul! In the first place, he was not<br />

27

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