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G.15 Kernel, Range, Nullity, Rank 431<br />

corresponds to a <strong>linear</strong> transformation L: R n → R n , so condition 3 is equivalent<br />

to condition 1.<br />

Condition 6 implies 4 by the adjoint construct the inverse, but the converse<br />

is not so obvious. For the converse (4 implying 6), we refer back the<br />

proofs in Chapter 18 and 19. Note that if det M = 0, there exists an eigenvalue<br />

of M equal to 0, which implies M is not invertible. Thus condition 8<br />

is equivalent to conditions 4, 5, 9, and 10.<br />

The map M is injective if it does not have a null space by definition,<br />

however eigenvectors with eigenvalue 0 form a basis for the null space. Hence<br />

conditions 8 and 14 are equivalent, and 14, 15, and 16 are equivalent by the<br />

Dimension Formula (also known as the Rank-Nullity Theorem).<br />

Now conditions 11, 12, and 13 are all equivalent by the definition of a<br />

basis. Finally if a matrix M is not row-equivalent to the identity matrix,<br />

then det M = 0, so conditions 2 and 8 are equivalent.<br />

Hint for Review Problem 2<br />

Lets work through this problem.<br />

Let L: V → W be a <strong>linear</strong> transformation.<br />

only if L is one-to-one:<br />

Show that ker L = {0 V } if and<br />

1. First, suppose that ker L = {0 V }. Show that L is one-to-one.<br />

Remember what one-one means, it means whenever L(x) = L(y) we can be<br />

certain that x = y. While this might seem like a weird thing to require<br />

this statement really means that each vector in the range gets mapped to<br />

a unique vector in the range.<br />

We know we have the one-one property, but we also don’t want to forget<br />

some of the more basic properties of <strong>linear</strong> transformations namely that<br />

they are <strong>linear</strong>, which means L(ax + by) = aL(x) + bL(y) for scalars a and<br />

b.<br />

What if we rephrase the one-one property to say whenever L(x) − L(y) = 0<br />

implies that x − y = 0? Can we connect that to the statement that ker L =<br />

{0 V }? Remember that if L(v) = 0 then v ∈ ker L = {0 V }.<br />

2. Now, suppose that L is one-to-one. Show that ker L = {0 V }. That is, show<br />

that 0 V is in ker L, and then show that there are no other vectors in<br />

ker L.<br />

What would happen if we had a nonzero kernel? If we had some vector v<br />

with L(v) = 0 and v ≠ 0, we could try to show that this would contradict<br />

the given that L is one-one. If we found x and y with L(x) = L(y), then<br />

we know x = y. But if L(v) = 0 then L(x) + L(v) = L(y). Does this cause a<br />

problem?<br />

431

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