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A Grievous Wolf - Time for Truth

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liveth and abideth <strong>for</strong> ever” 1 Peter 1:23? If <strong>Wolf</strong> can’t produce chapter and verse to support his ‘Koine-Greek-onlyism,’<br />

then yet again, he shows that he has no final authority apart from his own two-anda-half<br />

pints of human brains that will die with him.<br />

Further, to insist, as <strong>Wolf</strong> does, that knowledge of a dead language that few are able to learn in the present<br />

day in order to know what God ‘really’ said, is a violation of the priesthood of all believers, 1 Peter<br />

2:5, 9, a specific doctrine that applies to Christian believers now. See Introduction.<br />

6. If God gave us the KJV as the ONLY inspired translation, why could God not repeat the process again<br />

in modern English language or in other languages of the world?<br />

The 1611 Holy Bible isn’t the only Bible translation available today that is all scripture given by inspiration<br />

of God. <strong>Wolf</strong> is showing his wilful ignorance again and he should check Hazardous Materials by<br />

Dr Mrs Gail Riplinger p 115 <strong>for</strong> in<strong>for</strong>mation about Bibles in other languages that are all scripture given<br />

by inspiration of God. She states “Yet God’s inspired words can still be found <strong>for</strong> those who seek them,<br />

in Bibles such as the Spanish Valera 1602 Purificada, the Morrison Chinese Bible, Bible King James<br />

Française and others.”<br />

Those Bibles are faithful to the text of the 1611 Holy Bible. God will not repeat the process today <strong>for</strong><br />

modern versions because a) He has His Book and b) no modern version can be translated under the<br />

power and authority of a king, such as James 1 st , Ecclesiastes 8:4, so God has ignored them. The RV<br />

translators of 1881 twice approached the English crown <strong>for</strong> backing <strong>for</strong> their translation. Queen Victoria<br />

rightly refused each time. Ditto all subsequent versions with respect to the absence of kingly authority<br />

to certify them as “the scripture of truth” Daniel 10:21. One way and another, all modern versions,<br />

even the NKJV, derive from the corrupt Catholic departures of the Westcott-Hort RV from the 1611<br />

Holy Bible. God has there<strong>for</strong>e ignored them.<br />

7. If God supervised the translation process so that the KJV would be 100% error free, why did God not<br />

extend this supervision to the printers who made and have made many errors in printing the text?<br />

God put the fear of God into printers who were either careless or, in some cases, deliberately meddlesome<br />

with His Book. The printers who omitted “ not” from Exodus 20:14 in a 1631 Edition by Robert<br />

Barker were severely fined and lost their printer’s licence.<br />

See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wicked_Bible.<br />

<strong>Wolf</strong> ought to do some checking of authentic historical facts instead of repeatedly displaying wilful ignorance.<br />

He should also consider the end warning in 1 Samuel 2:30, as it also applies to him. “...they<br />

that despise me shall be lightly esteemed.” Finally, it is up to <strong>Wolf</strong> to show that any printers’ errors<br />

persist in the 1611 Holy Bible. If he can’t, then instead of personifying Ecclesiastes 10:3*, he should be<br />

prepared to “Fear God, and give glory to him” Revelation 14:7 <strong>for</strong> having completed the purification<br />

process <strong>for</strong> His Book according to Psalm 12:6, 7.<br />

*“Yea also, when he that is a fool walketh by the way, his wisdom faileth him, and he saith to every<br />

one that he is a fool.”<br />

8. Why did the KJV translators use marginal note [sic] showing other possible translations? If the KJV<br />

translation was the inspired translation of God, there could be no alternates! Since there are hundreds<br />

of these possible translations in the margin of the KJV, does this mean God could not make up his mind<br />

which one was better to put into the translation?<br />

The translators used marginal notes to show that they were honest translators. Why should the possibility<br />

of “alternates” preclude inspiration? Chapter and verse? Note the different ways that the following<br />

statement is given that is describing the same event i.e. the crucifixion:<br />

“as a sheep be<strong>for</strong>e her shearers is dumb” Isaiah 53:7<br />

“like a lamb dumb be<strong>for</strong>e his shearer” Acts 8:32<br />

God can there<strong>for</strong>e describe the same event in different ways and He guided the King James translators<br />

to place His preferred reading in the text.

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