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Asset Pricing John H. Cochrane June 12, 2000

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price, p(x) > 0.<br />

CHAPTER 4 THE DISCOUNT FACTOR<br />

No-arbitrage says that you can’t get for free a portfolio that might pay off positively, but<br />

will certainly never cost you anything. This definition is different from the colloquial use of<br />

the word “arbitrage.” Most people use “arbitrage” to mean a violation of the law of one price<br />

– a riskless way of buying something cheap and selling it for a higher price. “Arbitrages” here<br />

might pay off, but then again they might not. The word “arbitrage” is also widely abused.<br />

“Risk arbitrage” is a Wall Street oxymoron that means making specific kinds of bets.<br />

An equivalent statement is that if one payoff dominates another, then its price must be<br />

higher – if x ≥ y, then p(x) ≥ p(y) (Or, a bit more carefully but more long-windedly, if<br />

x ≥ y almost surely and x>ywith positive probability, then p(x) >p(y). You can’t forget<br />

that x and y are random variables.)<br />

m>0 ⇒No-arbitrage<br />

The absence of arbitrage opportunities is clearly a consequence of a positive discount<br />

factor, and a positive discount factor naturally results from any sort of utility maximization.<br />

Recall,<br />

m(s) =β u0 [c(s)]<br />

u 0 (c)<br />

It is a sensible characterization of preferences that marginal utility is always positive. Few<br />

people are so satiated that they will throw away money. Therefore, the marginal rate of<br />

substitution is positive. The marginal rate of substitution is a random variable, so “positive”<br />

means “positive in every state of nature” or “in every possible realization.”<br />

Now, if contingent claims prices are all positive, a bundle of positive amounts of contingent<br />

claims must also have a positive price, even in incomplete markets. A little more<br />

formally,<br />

> 0.<br />

Theorem: p = E(mx) and m(s) > 0 imply no-arbitrage.<br />

Proof: m>0; x ≥ 0 and there are some states where x>0. Thus, in some states<br />

mx > 0 and in other states mx =0. Therefore E(mx) > 0. ¤<br />

No arbitrage ⇒ m>0<br />

Now we turn the observation around, which is again the hard and interesting part. As<br />

the law of one price property guaranteed the existence of a discount factor m, no-arbitrage<br />

guarantees the existence of a positive m.<br />

The basic idea is pretty simple. No-arbitrage means that the prices of any payoff in the<br />

positive orthant (except zero, but including the axes) must be strictly positive. The price =<br />

70

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