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Asset Pricing John H. Cochrane June 12, 2000

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CHAPTER 4 THE DISCOUNT FACTOR<br />

shocks that drive the original assets,<br />

dΛ∗ Λ∗ = −rf µ<br />

dt − µ + D<br />

0<br />

− rf Σ<br />

p −1 σdz. (53)<br />

where Σ ≡ σσ0 again is the covariance matrix of returns. You can easily check that this<br />

equation solves<br />

and<br />

Et<br />

µ <br />

dp<br />

+<br />

p<br />

D<br />

p dt − rf µ ∗ dΛ<br />

dt = −Et<br />

Λ∗ Et<br />

µ ∗ dΛ<br />

= −r f dt,<br />

Λ ∗<br />

<br />

dp<br />

p<br />

or you can show that this is the only diffusion driven by dz, dt with these properties. If there<br />

is a risk free rate r f<br />

t<br />

(54)<br />

(also potentially time-varying), then that rate determines rf<br />

t .Ifthereis<br />

no risk free rate, (4.53) will price the risky assets for any arbitrary (or convenient) choice of<br />

r f<br />

t . As usual, this discount factor is not unique; Λ∗ plus orthogonal noise will also act as a<br />

discount factor:<br />

dΛ<br />

Λ<br />

dΛ∗<br />

= + dw; E(dw) =0; E(dzdw) =0.<br />

Λ∗ You can see that (4.53) is exactly analogous to the discrete time formula (4.52). (If you don’t<br />

like answers popping out of hats like this, guess a solution of the form<br />

dΛ<br />

Λ = µ Λdt + σΛdz.<br />

Then find µ Λ and σΛ to satisfy (4.54) for the riskfree and risky assets.)<br />

4.4 Problems<br />

1. Show that the law of one price loop implies that price is a linear function of payoff and<br />

vice versa<br />

2. Does the absence of arbitrage imply the law of one price? Does the law of one price<br />

imply the absence of arbitrage? Answer directly using portfolio arguments, and indirectly<br />

using the corresponding discount factors.<br />

3. If the law of one price or absence of arbitrage hold in population, must they hold in a<br />

sample drawn from that population?<br />

76

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