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Asset Pricing John H. Cochrane June 12, 2000

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SECTION 4.2 NO-ARBITRAGE AND POSITIVE DISCOUNT FACTORS<br />

0 plane divides the region of positive prices from the region of negative prices. Thus, if the<br />

region of negative prices is not to intersect the positive orthant, the iso-price lines must march<br />

up and to the right, and the discount factor m, must point up and to the right. This is how<br />

we have graphed it all along, most recently in figure 9. Figure 11 illustrates the case that is<br />

ruled out: a whole region of negative price payoffs lies in the positive orthant. For example,<br />

the payoff x is strictly positive, but has a negative price. As a result, the (unique, since this<br />

market is complete) discount factor m is negative in the y-axis state.<br />

x * , m<br />

x<br />

p = -1<br />

p = 0<br />

p = +1<br />

Figure 11. Counter-example for no-arbitrage ⇒ m>0 theorem. The payoff x is positive,<br />

but has negative price. The discount factor is not strictly positive<br />

The theorem is easy to prove in complete markets. There is only one m, x ∗ .Ifitisn’t<br />

positive in some state, then the contingent claim in that state has a positive payoff and a<br />

negative price, which violates no arbitrage. More formally,<br />

Theorem: In complete markets, no-arbitrage implies that there exists a unique m><br />

0 such that p = E(mx).<br />

Proof: No-arbitrage implies the law of one price, so there is an x ∗ such that p =<br />

E(x ∗ x), and in a complete market this is the unique discount factor. Suppose that<br />

x ∗ ≤ 0 for some states. Then, form a payoff x that is 1 in those states, and zero<br />

elsewhere. This payoff is strictly positive, but its price, P<br />

s:x ∗ (s)

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