ST 520 Statistical Principles of Clinical Trials - NCSU Statistics ...
ST 520 Statistical Principles of Clinical Trials - NCSU Statistics ...
ST 520 Statistical Principles of Clinical Trials - NCSU Statistics ...
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CHAPTER 4 <strong>ST</strong> <strong>520</strong>, A. TSIATIS and D. Zhang<br />
is denoted by µ2. The n1 and n2 patients that are to be randomized to treatments 1 and 2 are<br />
thought <strong>of</strong> as independent random samples chosen from this hypothetical super-population.<br />
An estimator for the treatment difference is given by<br />
¯Y2 − ¯ Y1,<br />
where ¯ Y1 is the sample average response <strong>of</strong> the n1 patients assigned treatment 1 and ¯ Y2 is the<br />
sample average response <strong>of</strong> the n2 patients assigned treatment 2. Let us also assume that the<br />
population variance <strong>of</strong> response is the same for the two treatments; i.e. σ 2 1 = σ 2 2 = σ 2 . This may<br />
be reasonable if we don’t have any a-priori reason to think these variances are different. The<br />
variance <strong>of</strong> our estimator is given as<br />
var( ¯ Y2 − ¯ Y1) = var( ¯ Y2) + var( ¯ Y1) = σ 2<br />
�<br />
1<br />
n1<br />
+ 1<br />
�<br />
.<br />
n2<br />
Question: Subject to the constraint that n = n1+n2, how do we find the most efficient estimator<br />
for µ2 − µ1? That is, what treatment allocation minimizes the variance <strong>of</strong> our estimator? i.e.<br />
σ 2<br />
�<br />
1<br />
+<br />
n1<br />
1<br />
�<br />
= σ<br />
n2<br />
2<br />
�<br />
1<br />
nπ +<br />
�<br />
1<br />
=<br />
n(1 − π)<br />
σ2<br />
� �<br />
1<br />
.<br />
n π(1 − π)<br />
The answer is the value <strong>of</strong> 0 ≤ π ≤ 1 which maximizes π(1 −π) = π −π 2 . Using simple calculus,<br />
we take the derivative with respect to π and set it equal to zero to find the maximum. Namely,<br />
d(π − π 2 )<br />
dπ<br />
= 1 − 2π = 0; π = .5.<br />
This is guaranteed to be a maximum since the second derivative<br />
d 2 (π − π 2 )<br />
dπ 2<br />
= −2.<br />
Thus, to get the most efficient answer we should randomize with equal probability. However, as<br />
we will now demonstrate, the loss <strong>of</strong> efficiency is not that great when we use unequal allocation.<br />
For example, if we randomize with probability 2/3, then the variance <strong>of</strong> our estimator would be<br />
σ2 � �<br />
1<br />
=<br />
n (2/3)(1/3)<br />
4.5σ2<br />
n<br />
instead <strong>of</strong><br />
σ 2<br />
n<br />
�<br />
1<br />
(1/2)(1/2)<br />
�<br />
PAGE 54<br />
= 4σ2<br />
n ,