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ST 520 Statistical Principles of Clinical Trials - NCSU Statistics ...

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CHAPTER 4 <strong>ST</strong> <strong>520</strong>, A. TSIATIS and D. Zhang<br />

is denoted by µ2. The n1 and n2 patients that are to be randomized to treatments 1 and 2 are<br />

thought <strong>of</strong> as independent random samples chosen from this hypothetical super-population.<br />

An estimator for the treatment difference is given by<br />

¯Y2 − ¯ Y1,<br />

where ¯ Y1 is the sample average response <strong>of</strong> the n1 patients assigned treatment 1 and ¯ Y2 is the<br />

sample average response <strong>of</strong> the n2 patients assigned treatment 2. Let us also assume that the<br />

population variance <strong>of</strong> response is the same for the two treatments; i.e. σ 2 1 = σ 2 2 = σ 2 . This may<br />

be reasonable if we don’t have any a-priori reason to think these variances are different. The<br />

variance <strong>of</strong> our estimator is given as<br />

var( ¯ Y2 − ¯ Y1) = var( ¯ Y2) + var( ¯ Y1) = σ 2<br />

�<br />

1<br />

n1<br />

+ 1<br />

�<br />

.<br />

n2<br />

Question: Subject to the constraint that n = n1+n2, how do we find the most efficient estimator<br />

for µ2 − µ1? That is, what treatment allocation minimizes the variance <strong>of</strong> our estimator? i.e.<br />

σ 2<br />

�<br />

1<br />

+<br />

n1<br />

1<br />

�<br />

= σ<br />

n2<br />

2<br />

�<br />

1<br />

nπ +<br />

�<br />

1<br />

=<br />

n(1 − π)<br />

σ2<br />

� �<br />

1<br />

.<br />

n π(1 − π)<br />

The answer is the value <strong>of</strong> 0 ≤ π ≤ 1 which maximizes π(1 −π) = π −π 2 . Using simple calculus,<br />

we take the derivative with respect to π and set it equal to zero to find the maximum. Namely,<br />

d(π − π 2 )<br />

dπ<br />

= 1 − 2π = 0; π = .5.<br />

This is guaranteed to be a maximum since the second derivative<br />

d 2 (π − π 2 )<br />

dπ 2<br />

= −2.<br />

Thus, to get the most efficient answer we should randomize with equal probability. However, as<br />

we will now demonstrate, the loss <strong>of</strong> efficiency is not that great when we use unequal allocation.<br />

For example, if we randomize with probability 2/3, then the variance <strong>of</strong> our estimator would be<br />

σ2 � �<br />

1<br />

=<br />

n (2/3)(1/3)<br />

4.5σ2<br />

n<br />

instead <strong>of</strong><br />

σ 2<br />

n<br />

�<br />

1<br />

(1/2)(1/2)<br />

�<br />

PAGE 54<br />

= 4σ2<br />

n ,

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