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Mathematical Methods for Physicists: A concise introduction - Site Map

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FUNCTIONS DEFINED BY INTEGRALS<br />

Solution: Note that y 0 ˆ dy=dt. We know how to solve this simple di€erential<br />

equation, but as an illustration we now solve it using Laplace trans<strong>for</strong>ms. Taking<br />

both sides of the equation we obtain<br />

Now<br />

L‰ y 00 Š‡L‰ yŠ ˆL‰1Š; …L‰ f ŠˆL‰1Š†:<br />

L‰ y 00 ŠˆpL‰ y 0 Šy 0 …0† ˆpfpL‰ yŠy…0†g y 0 …0†<br />

ˆ p 2 L‰ yŠpy…0†y 0 …0†<br />

ˆ p 2 L‰ yŠ<br />

and<br />

L‰1Š ˆ1=p:<br />

The trans<strong>for</strong>med equation then becomes<br />

p 2 Ly ‰ Š‡Ly ‰ Š ˆ 1=p<br />

or<br />

there<strong>for</strong>e<br />

1<br />

Ly ‰ Š ˆ<br />

p… p 2 ‡ 1† ˆ 1<br />

p <br />

p<br />

p 2 ‡ 1 ;<br />

<br />

y ˆ L 1 1<br />

L 1 p<br />

p p 2 :<br />

‡ 1<br />

We ®nd from Eqs. (9.6) and (9.10) that<br />

<br />

<br />

L 1 1<br />

ˆ 1 and L 1 p<br />

p<br />

p 2 ‡ 1<br />

Thus, the solution of the initial problem is<br />

ˆ cos t:<br />

y ˆ 1 cos t <strong>for</strong> t 0; y ˆ 0 <strong>for</strong> t < 0:<br />

Laplace trans<strong>for</strong>ms of functions de®ned by integrals<br />

x<br />

If g…x† ˆR 0<br />

f …u†du, and if Lf…x† ‰ Š ˆ F…p†, then Lg…x† ‰ Š ˆ F…p†=p.<br />

Similarly, if L 1 ‰ F… p† Š ˆ f …x†, then L 1 ‰ F… p†=pŠ ˆ g…x†:<br />

x<br />

It is easy to prove this. If g…x† ˆR 0 f …u†du, then g…0† ˆ0; g 0 …x† ˆf …x†. Taking<br />

Laplace trans<strong>for</strong>m, we obtain<br />

L‰g 0 …x†Š ˆ L‰ f …x†Š<br />

383

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