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among two risky assets and a riskless asset having zero net return (cash). The two risky<br />

assets have mean returns pt and p2 and variance-covariance matrix of returns<br />

j, = / a h a \<br />

We allow short sales and margin loans and suppose that the investment allocations satisfy<br />

2 g Xi £ — 1, and 1 £ £ *i £ 0. Assume that brokerage costs are negligible and that investors<br />

retain other assets which may be used to offset margin calls.<br />

(a) Suppose there is perfect positive correlation, i.e., a\2 = Cii 0.05, or if not, to (—1,0,2). If 0.05 < r < 0.10, the frontier<br />

passes from (0,0,1) to (—1,0,2) and is linear between these points. If r S 0.10, the efficient<br />

surface terminates at (0,0,1). Plot this efficient surface, and also the efficient surface<br />

corresponding to the constraints £ *i = 1 > *i £ 0. Compare these plots paying particular<br />

attention to the number of admissible efficient portfolios.<br />

(b) Suppose p2 = 0.06 and all other parameters are as in (a). Show that cash dominates<br />

the riskless portfolio (i, — 1,$). Show that the portfolio (0,1, —0.67) is an efficient riskless<br />

portfolio having expected return 0.10. Show that the next set of efficient portfolios<br />

lies on a curve between (0,1, —0.67) and (0,1,0), the following set along the straight line<br />

from (0,1,0) to (0,0,1), and the final set is again linear between (0,0,1) and (-1,0,2).<br />

Plot this efficient surface and compare it with the conventional efficient surface as in (a).<br />

(c) Suppose there is zero correlation, i.e.,

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