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P. Derek Overfield PhD Thesis - Research@StAndrews:FullText

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and content of the Philonic citation seems to<br />

depend upon two sources:<br />

the language of the<br />

Wisdom literature 124 and the philosophy of the<br />

St<br />

' 125<br />

OlCS.<br />

Now it has generally been argued that<br />

the author of Ephesians borrowed the 1tA:npWf.LO. term<br />

from one or other of several sources.<br />

But need this<br />

be so?<br />

Philo arrived at the same theological conception<br />

or motif of ascension-subjugation-filling<br />

by means of reliance on the two sources mentioned but<br />

for the actual terminology of I filling I<br />

uses not<br />

, exactly as does the author of<br />

Ephesians in 4:10.<br />

Can it be then that the content<br />

in Ephesians is gove~ned not by a.<br />

theological or philosophical concept that had bee~<br />

related to the word, bu~<br />

rather by the verbal form<br />

with its associated traditions?<br />

Our suggestion, which at this stage is<br />

no more than a hypothesis, does, however, find support<br />

from a number of different directions.<br />

Firstly, the<br />

actual use made of 1tAnpOO!J.a. by Philo himself. The<br />

term occurs in Philo somewhat infrequently, but significantly<br />

enough on the few occasions when it does<br />

occur it does not differ from the use made of the same<br />

term in secular literature.<br />

Philo uses the word to<br />

express the contents - material or spiritual - with<br />

which an object can be filledi 126 he also uses the<br />

-235-

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