P. Derek Overfield PhD Thesis - Research@StAndrews:FullText

(b) 1:12
The possibility of a Messianic interpretation
being given to this verse is very closely tied up
wi th the identification of both ~~
In vv. 11-13 the author makes a definite distinction
between ~€t', and ~I-L€t'~ 36 between Jews and Gentiles,
both of whom now share the Christian faith. 3 ?
As
Schlier 38 rightly says
liMit ihm sind ohne Zweifel
Iwir Christen aus Juden' gemeint ll • If this is so,
what precisely is meant by the fact that they are
described as 1tpO"h:x~x6'ta.,? The NEB translates
' we , who were the first to set our hope on Christ, ••• ';
Abbott 39 p~raphrases 'we Jews had ev~n in former times
the promise of Christ wfiich has now been fulfilled'.
Which of these rather different interpretations is
justified by the text?
The question very obviously
centres around the interpretation of
1tpo"h.1t~x6'ta;,
We may ask the same question another way:
if the author
is referring to the fact that it was the privilege of
the Jewish Christians to first believe in Christ, why
did he use 1tpO€h.1tCZ;W
when greater clarity would have
been achieved by using 1tLO""t€0[(V , as in v .13? The
answer is provided by 2:12:
the Gentiles were outside
the Covenant of God and its accompanying promise;
their
world was a world without hope, more precisely, without
the hope of a Messiah.
hapax legomena itpO€h.itCZ;W
In other words, by using the
the author refers to the
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