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P. Derek Overfield PhD Thesis - Research@StAndrews:FullText

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But what, we must ask, precisely is<br />

intended by !1tot'I)TEV ? Two possibilities are<br />

suggested by the context: either the purpose which<br />

God in Christ achieved, or the purpose which he resolved<br />

in Christ.<br />

The exegetes are generally in agreement.<br />

Abbott 44 argues for the latter interpretation when he<br />

writes " ••• He whom they know as Jesus their Lord is<br />

none other than the Christ in whom God had from eternity<br />

formed his purpose".<br />

Gnilka 45 takes a similar view.<br />

Schlier 46 attempts to combine both possibilities •<br />

.<br />

The argument for the former interpretation rests upon<br />

the similarity between 3:11 and 2:3. But in this<br />

latter verse afA-TJl..La. is the object of 1toLefv ,.<br />

whereas this of course does refer to that which is<br />

willed, 1tp6aec:n v<br />

usually refers to the forming of a<br />

purpose, particularly a purpose formed in a previous<br />

47<br />

age. If our interpretation is correct then in 3:11<br />

the author is referring to the plan which God has previously<br />

purposed, a plan that centres around ~<br />

Xp,,~6,.<br />

This does not prove a Messianic content as such, but<br />

it is surely suggestive of it, all the more so in<br />

light of the content of the previous<br />

1v "" Xpl;~<br />

formulations in Ephesians.<br />

Our examination of the foregoing texts has<br />

not proved the presence of Messianism in Ephesians<br />

though it has disclosed a number of features which, if<br />

-301-

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