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popper-logic-scientific-discovery

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378<br />

new appendices<br />

(4)<br />

p(a) = lim p(a<br />

n →∞<br />

n ) = 0, unless p(a) = p(an ) = 1<br />

But it is clear that p(a) = 1 is unacceptable (not only from my point<br />

of view but also from that of my inductivist opponents who clearly<br />

cannot accept the consequence that the probability of a universal law<br />

can never be increased by experience). For ‘all swans are black’ would<br />

have the probability 1 as well as ‘all swans are white’—and similarly for<br />

all colours; so that ‘there exists a black swan’ and ‘there exists a white<br />

swan’, etc., would all have zero probability, in spite of their intuitive<br />

<strong>logic</strong>al weakness. In other words, p(a) = 1 would amount to asserting<br />

on purely <strong>logic</strong>al grounds with probability 1 the emptiness of the<br />

universe.<br />

Thus (4) establishes (1).<br />

Although I believe that this argument (including the assumption of<br />

independence to be discussed below) is incontestable, there are a<br />

number of much weaker arguments which do not assume independence<br />

and which still lead to (1). For example we might argue as<br />

follows.<br />

It was assumed in our derivation that for every k i, it is <strong>logic</strong>ally<br />

possible that it has the property A, and alternatively, that it has the<br />

property non-A: this leads essentially to (4). But one might also<br />

assume, perhaps, that what we have to consider as our fundamental<br />

possibilities are not the possible properties of every individual in the<br />

universe of n individuals, but rather the possible proportions with<br />

which the properties A and non-A may occur within a sample of individuals.<br />

In a sample of n individuals, the possible proportions with<br />

which A may occur are: 0, 1/n, ..., n/n. If we consider the occurrences<br />

of any of these proportions as our fundamental possibilities, and thus<br />

treat them as equi-probable (‘Laplace’s distribution’ 2 ), then (4) would<br />

have to be replaced by<br />

(5)<br />

p(a n ) = 1/(n + 1); so that lim p(a n ) = 0.<br />

2 It is the assumption underlying Laplace’s derivation of his famous ‘rule of succession’;<br />

this is why I call it ‘Laplace’s distribution’. It is an adequate assumption if our problem is<br />

one of mere sampling; it seems inadequate if we are concerned (as was Laplace) with a<br />

succession of individual events. See also appendix *ix, points 7 ff. of my ‘Third Note’; and<br />

note 10 to appendix *viii.

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