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The dissemination of divination in roman republican times

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<strong>The</strong> problem with these historical explanations is that <strong>in</strong> so far as they expla<strong>in</strong> anyth<strong>in</strong>g,<br />

they are merely correlational. <strong>The</strong>y take two co-occurr<strong>in</strong>g events, e.g. the <strong>in</strong>troduction <strong>of</strong><br />

Greek philosophy (A) and disbelief <strong>in</strong> <strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong> (B) 98 , and consider this an explanation. If<br />

you want to expla<strong>in</strong> a correlation between A (say <strong>in</strong>troduction <strong>of</strong> Greek philosophy) and B<br />

(disbelief <strong>in</strong> <strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong>), there are four options to consider: either 1) A causes B, or 2) B<br />

causes A, or 3) some other factor, C, causes A and B, or 4)there is no causal relationship<br />

between A and B. None have bothered to <strong>in</strong>vestigate these possibilities systematically. Let us<br />

assume for a moment that there is a causal relationship between A and B. It might then be<br />

that a decl<strong>in</strong>e <strong>in</strong> belief <strong>in</strong> <strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong> made the Romans more susceptible to Greek philosophy<br />

(relation 2), or maybe a great admiration <strong>of</strong> everyth<strong>in</strong>g Greek (the Greeks did not use<br />

<strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong> to the same extent as the Romans) produced both <strong>in</strong>troduction <strong>of</strong> Greek<br />

philosophy and disbelief <strong>in</strong> <strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong> (relation 3).<br />

Historical explanations <strong>of</strong> the form reviewed here also lack a theory <strong>of</strong> why some historical<br />

events have an effect on culture change and others do not. <strong>The</strong> only stipulated mechanism is<br />

conservatism. People simply cont<strong>in</strong>ue do<strong>in</strong>g what their predecessors have done. But<br />

some<strong>times</strong> they apparently change. Why did they change this time and not some other? If we<br />

take the example <strong>of</strong> Greek philosophy, we know that there were cultural <strong>in</strong>teraction between<br />

the Romans and the Greeks already from the 6 th century or earlier BCE (Beard, North, &<br />

Price 1998: I, 12). Why did Greek philosophy only make an impact <strong>in</strong> the 3 rd century BCE<br />

when the Romans must have known <strong>of</strong> it for centuries? In order to use history as an<br />

explanation <strong>of</strong> culture change or persistence, it is necessary to give an account <strong>of</strong> why some<br />

historical events have an impact and others don't.<br />

It could be said that cont<strong>in</strong>gencies are not proper explanations, but descriptions, because<br />

they are merely based on correlation.<br />

<strong>The</strong> formalist thesis<br />

A large number <strong>of</strong> scholars have assumed that <strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong> rituals are mere formalisms to<br />

which the Romans did not attach any belief <strong>in</strong> the gods (Bouché-Leclercq, Warde-Fowler,<br />

Bloch, Dumezil, Taylor, and Latte). First <strong>of</strong> all, it is necessary to notice the strongly<br />

protestant bias <strong>in</strong> the focus on belief to the detriment <strong>of</strong> ritual <strong>in</strong>herent <strong>in</strong> this thesis (Durand<br />

98 S<strong>in</strong>ce recent research has shown that the foremost exponent <strong>of</strong> Greek philosophy, Cicero, took <strong>div<strong>in</strong>ation</strong><br />

very seriously (Beard 1986; Guillaumont 1984; L<strong>in</strong>derski 1995: passim), there is no reason to suggest that<br />

read<strong>in</strong>g Greek philosophy created a sceptic attitude <strong>in</strong> general.<br />

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