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Jaume Solà i Pujols - Departament de Filologia Catalana ...

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the present wi<strong>de</strong>spread conception of Functional Categories, as Functional Category to which the<br />

(participial) verb raises.<br />

The present day multiplication of hypotheses about Functional Categories after Pollock<br />

(1989) initial proposal raises a fundamental question about their universality. One possible view<br />

is that all of them are universal, although possibly not morphologically realized in some<br />

languages. According to this view, English would have Object-Agreement, which, as opposed<br />

the French one, would have no morphological manifestation. An alternative, and perhaps more<br />

realistic view, is that only those FCs exist in a language which have some morphological<br />

manifestation. In this view, English would not have object Agreement.<br />

Of course, an intermediate hypothesis is possible: some FCs are universal (whether they<br />

have overt manifestations or not) and others are not (and will be present only in languages where<br />

they can be <strong>de</strong>tected by the morphology). Chomsky's recent hypotheses (See Chomsky (1992))<br />

postulate that Object-Agreement belongs to the universal type of FC, since it is the universal<br />

means of Accusative-assignment. In fact, this hypothesis is not at odds with our theory on<br />

Accusative, as far as we claim that Accusative Case is in principle available in<strong>de</strong>pen<strong>de</strong>ntly of<br />

lexical idiosyncrasies.<br />

I think, however, that French Object-Agreement and Chomsky's abstract Object-<br />

Agreement need not be assimilated as a single concept. French object Agreement is only<br />

operative in a restricted class of sentences, namely the ones involving a moved object of some<br />

kind (an object clitic, a Wh-moved object or a A-moved object). To account for this limited<br />

distribution, Kayne assumes that the Specifier of Object Agreement in French is not a Case<br />

position. Since Accusative assignment in French is quite in<strong>de</strong>pen<strong>de</strong>nt of the Object Agreement<br />

restricted paradigm, we are led to the conclusion that, if a universal Object agreement is to be<br />

postulated, it has nothing to do with French overt Object Agreement.<br />

We will ignore for the moment the possibility of non-overt Object Agreement, and<br />

assume that only French has an Object Agreement FC. I come back to the issue below.<br />

Suppose that Specifier of Agreement FCs counts as an A-position, as would be<br />

1

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