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With-Love-to-Muhammad

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90 <strong>With</strong> <strong>Love</strong> <strong>to</strong> <strong>Muhammad</strong> sa the Khātam-un-Nabiyyīn<br />

وَرَ‏ سُ‏ وْ‏ لاً‏ اِلىٰ‏ بَنىِ‏ ْۤ اِسرْ‏ ‏ٰٓءِيْلَۙ‏ ...80<br />

This means that Hazrat ‘Īsā bin Mariam as is a “Prophet for the<br />

Banī Isrā’īl” and was meant <strong>to</strong> establish the law of the Torah<br />

among the Jews. Now, when he returns and attempts <strong>to</strong> join the<br />

ummah of the Holy Prophet <strong>Muhammad</strong> sa , would he be given<br />

the authority <strong>to</strong> modify the law of the Holy Qur’ān <strong>to</strong> make it<br />

aligned with the law of the Torah? Or would he be allowed <strong>to</strong><br />

abrogate the verse above as it restricts his message <strong>to</strong> the Banī<br />

Isrā’īl only? Farhan Khan should probably think about these<br />

numerous paradoxes that exist in his own concept of the return<br />

of Hazrat ’Īsā bin Mariam as , whom he considers <strong>to</strong> be a “lawbearing<br />

Prophet,” before criticizing Islām Ahmadiyya.<br />

Questions for Farhan Khan:<br />

1. Why does he always present the Ahmadiyya Muslim<br />

side of the arguments in his own words instead of<br />

quoting from the official literature of the Jamā‘at?<br />

2. If Hazrat ‘Īsā as was a law-bearing prophet, why does<br />

Allāh say that he judged for the Jews according <strong>to</strong> the<br />

law of the Torah in 5:45?<br />

3. When Hazrat ‘Īsā as returns, according <strong>to</strong> Farhan Khan,<br />

what happens <strong>to</strong> 3:50?<br />

80<br />

Sūrah Āle ‘Imrān, 3:50

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