Review of Pharmacology - 9E (2015)

Review of Pharmacology
Chemotherapy B: Antimicrobials for Specific Conditions
169. Drawback of artesunate is: (MH 2007)
(a) Poor bioavailability
(b) Rapid recrudescence of malaria
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Hemolysis
170. Absorption of which of the following anti-malarial
drug increases with food intake? (MH 2008)
(a) Mefloquine
(b) Lumefantrine
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Amodiaquine
171. Patient is being admininstered i.v. quinine following
which he developed restlessness and sweating, the
most likely cause is: (AP 2002)
(a) Hypoglycaemia
(b) Cinchonism
(c) Arrhythmias
(d) Sweating
172. Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is safe
for use in pregnancy? (MP 2008)
(a) Atovaquone
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Proguanil
(d) Primaquine
173. Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:
(a) It is rapidly absorbed (Kolkata 2005)
(b) It is rapidly metabolized
(c) It has increased tissue binding
(d) It is rapidly eliminated
174. Drug of choice for chloroquine resistant malaria in
pregnancy is: (Kolkata 2007)
(a) Quinine
(b) Mefloquine
(c) Artemisinin
(d) Sulphadoxine+ pyrimethamine
175. Radical cure of Plasmodium vivax is by:
(a) Chloroquine (Karnataka 2007, UP 2006)
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Primaquine
(d) Artesunate
176. Volume of distribution for chloroquine is:
(a) 5–8 L (Karnataka 2001)
(b) 9–15 L
(c) 100–650 L
(d) Above 1300 L
anti-protozoal, anti-helminthic and
miscellaneous drugs
177. A patient was being treated with a drug that interferes
with the activity of enzyme pyruvate ferredoxin oxidoreductase.
Which of the following is the most likely
organism causing infection in this patient?
(a) Beef tapeworm (AI 2012)
(b) Whipworm
(c) Cryptosporidium
(d) Trypanosoma
178. All the following are administered under supervision
in India except: (AIIMS Nov 2009)
(a) Dapsone
(b) Clofazimine
(c) Pyrazinamide
(d) Rifampicin
179. All of these are used in the treatment of visceral
leishmaniasis except: (AIIMS Nov 2009)
(a) Sitamaquine
(b) Paromomycin
(c) Miltefosine
(d) Hydroxychloroquine
180. Potassium iodide is useful in the treatment of:
(a) Sporotrichosis (DPG 2009)
(b) Impetigo
(c) Viral warts
(d) Dermatitis herpetiformis
181. Pyronaridine is: (AIIMS Nov, 2003)
(a) Antimalarial
(b) Anti-HIV
(c) Antifungal
(d) Antibacterial
182. The drug most likely to be responsible for acute
pancreatitis is:
(a) Didanosine
(b) Ketoconazole
(c) Saquinavir
(d) Zidovudine
183. Which of the following statements about amoebicides
is LEAST accurate?
(a) Diloxanide furoate is a luminal amoebicide
(b) Emetine is contra-indicated in pregnancy and in
patients with cardiac disease
(c) Metronidazole has little activity in the gut lumen
(d) Paromomycin is effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis
184. Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal
amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers:
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Emetine
(c) Quiniodochlor
(d) Diloxanide furoate
185. Prolonged use of the following drug has been implicated
in the causation of subacute myelo-optic neuropathy
(SMON):
(a) Diloxanide furoate
(b) Quiniodochlor
(c) Emetine
(d) Furazolidone
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