Review of Pharmacology - 9E (2015)

Review of Pharmacology
Chemotherapy B: Antimicrobials for Specific Conditions
20. Peripheral neuropathy not caused by which antiretroviral
drug?
(a) Lamivudine
(b) Didanosine
(c) Zidovudine
(d) Zalcitabine
21. Antifungal used as cancer chemotherapeutic agent is:
(a) Flucytosine
(b) Nystatin
(c) Voriconazole
(d) Terbinafine
22. Drug not given for malaria prophylaxis is:
(a) Chloroquine
(b) Proguanil
(c) Doxycycline
(d) Artesunate
23. Which of the following is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
(a) Ritonavir
(b) Saquanavir
(c) Amprenavir
(d) Tenofovir
24. The most effective antitubercular drug against slow
multiplying intracellular mycobacteria is:
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Isoniazid
(c) Pyrazinamide
(d) Ethambutol
25. Metrifonate is effective against:
(a) Amoebiasis
(b) Leishmaniosis
(c) Schistosomiasis
(d) Giardiasis
26. The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex
Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection
is:
(a) Foscarnet
(b) Valacyclovir
(c) Abacavir
(d) Ganciclovir
27. Antimalarial agent safe for use in pregnancy is:
(a) Atovaquone
(b) Pyrimethamine
(c) Primaquine
(d) Proguanil
28. Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of
the following:
(a) Zidovudine
(b) Didanosine
(c) Zalcitabine
(d) Stavudine
29. Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all
of the following drugs except:
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Cefoperazone
(c) Griseofulvin
(d) Satranidazole
30. Which vitamin is most likely to be deficient in patients
on treatment with isoniazid:
(a) Vitamin B 1
(b) Vitamin B 2
(c) Vitamin B 6
(d) Vitamin B 12
31. Which one of the following drug may be used for prevention
of relapse of P. vivax infection:
(a) Chloroquine
(b) Primaquine
(c) Atovaquone
(d) Tetracycline
32. All of the following are anti HIV agents except:
(a) Ritonavir
(b) Acyclovir
(c) Didanosine
(d) Zidovudine
33. MDR tuberculosis is defined by:
(a) Resistance to all first and second line anti-tubercular
agents
(b) Resistance to any three first line anti-tubercular
agents
(c) Resistance to all first line and any three classes of
second line anti-tubercular agents
(d) Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin
34. The infective form of malarial parasite is:
(a) Trophozoites
(b) Sporozoites
(c) Hypnozoites
(d) Merozoites
35. Isoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy responds to
administrations of:
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Riboflavin
(c) Thiamine
(d) Cobalamin
36. Which of the following anti-tubercular agent does not
cause hepato-toxicity?
(a) Isoniazid
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
(d) Pyrazinamide
37. All of the following can cause visual adverse effects
except:
(a) Ethambutol
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Digoxin
38. Scabies can be effectively treated systemically by:
(a) Psoralens
(b) Ivermectin
616
https://kat.cr/user/Blink99/