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insufficient to motivate us to do our duty. The best we can say for demonstration, then, is<br />

that it has the function of providing a more “distinct” moral knowledge than the<br />

“confused” inclinations of instinct.<br />

In this section I want show how Leibniz could have integrated two principles of<br />

sense and reason in an account of virtue. We have seen Leibniz argue that sense instincts<br />

have a certain moral content. That is, they are indicators of what reason commands. For<br />

example, the social instinct or the instinct to love another points us in a general moral<br />

direction, and reason tells us we ought to do this as well. At the same time, a sense<br />

instinct can be unreliable, if it leads us, for example, straight to a present joy and away<br />

from lasting happiness. Leibniz has indicated that reason is required to regulate our<br />

instincts and passions. But he has also suggested that moral action often depends the aid<br />

of instinct.<br />

First, I want to suggest that in some fundamental ways Leibniz’s convictions<br />

about the aim and content of morality are not so different from Kant’s, as expressed in<br />

this passage from the Metaphysics of Morals:<br />

For since the sensible inclinations of human beings tempt them to ends<br />

(the matter of choice) that can be contrary to duty, lawgiving reason can in<br />

turn check their influence only by a moral end set up against the ends of<br />

inclination, an end that must therefore be given a priori, independently of<br />

inclinations. (Metaphysics of Morals 146) 85<br />

For Kant, since inclinations tend to oppose what duty tells us is right, they can be<br />

opposed only by a moral end given prior to all inclinations, and this moral end is the<br />

moral law itself. Although Leibniz did not argue for a moral law in Kant’s sense, his<br />

arguments do tend toward the position that there is a moral end independent of<br />

inclinations of instinct and sense. In addition, the grounding principles of morals, the<br />

criteria for right, just, and justice, have the nature of pure reason. Furthermore, these<br />

principles must regulate our inclinations, passions, and instincts. It should of course be<br />

recognized that unlike Kant, Leibniz does not insist on such a strict separation between<br />

sense and reason. If fact, on some level Leibniz cannot separate them entirely, since the<br />

possibility of moral action depends on an initial sensual motive in the agent. 86 For<br />

Leibniz, the ends of moral action need not be given strictly independently of sense<br />

instincts, since the latter provide some indication of what our moral ends are. Instincts<br />

direct us first to the good when reason often does not or cannot. But they do not tell us<br />

what our moral ends are.<br />

We now need to understand more closely how Leibniz configures the relationship<br />

between principles of sense and reason. First, it is important to see that Leibniz<br />

85 Metaphysik der Sitten: 254/380-381: “Denn da die sinnlichen Neigungen zu Zwecken (also der Materie<br />

der Willkür) verleiten, die der Pflicht zuwider sein können, so kann die gesetzgebende Vernunft ihrem<br />

Einfluß nicht anders wehren als wiederum durch einen entgegengesetzten moralischen Zweck, der also von<br />

der Neigung unabhängig a priori gegeben sein muß.”<br />

86 On the other hand, it is not so easy for Kant to maintain the separation. Kant has considerable difficulty<br />

explaining how the moral law can be an incentive to act against sensual inclinations, without this incentive<br />

also being a sensual inclination. Is moral feeling a purely rational respect for the moral law? If so, how does<br />

it oppose the senses? Or is moral feeling a “pleasure of the mind,” as Leibniz and the Stoics would say<br />

about honor?<br />

198

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