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Translation Universals.pdf - ymerleksi - home

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68 Anna Mauranen<br />

A general assumption seems to be that transfer is a relation between texts,<br />

that is, it occurs as influence from one text to another (e.g. Toury 1995). Even<br />

if it may also acquire systemic characteristics, these presumably take place<br />

where Toury’s law of growing standardisation would apply, that is, at the TL<br />

end. Thus, to put it in Toury’s terms, we replace (ST) textemes with (TL)<br />

repertoremes, but not vice versa.<br />

However, we might question this assumption and posit instead that the<br />

source text activates the source language processing system, which in turn<br />

affects the target text production, because both the SL and the TL systems<br />

are simultaneously activated in the brain. That is, there need not be a direct<br />

influence at the level of text, but an indirect one from ST to SL system to TL<br />

system to TT. Some evidence for such a possibility comes from instances where<br />

a TT item looks like a likely candidate for transfer from the ST, but in fact<br />

has no stimulus in the source. For example Mankkinen (1999) was looking for<br />

anglicisms in a Finnish translation, and had picked items like ottaa aikansa (‘it<br />

takes its time’), although the typical Finnish verb would be viedä, notottaa<br />

(the gloss would be ‘take’ again, corresponding to a different sense of take).<br />

On inspection it turned out that the equivalent expression was not there in<br />

the source text; in other words, the apparent anglicism had not in fact been<br />

triggered off by the ST. A plausible explanation would therefore be that the<br />

bilingual processing situation activates both language systems, and that the<br />

source language system influences processing in the target language. Linguistic<br />

influence is, then, a normal consequence of language contact, or, part of what<br />

Cook (2003b:2) calls ‘multicompetence’ in a bi- or multilingual individual. If<br />

we were able to show that translation is an exception to this, that would be<br />

highlyunexpectedbutofcourseallthemoreinteresting.<br />

How could this be shown, then? In other words, what kind of evidence<br />

would be needed for supporting an assumption that translations manifest<br />

no significant traces of interference from the source language? The first way<br />

in which this would receive support is if comparable corpora of translated<br />

and untranslated texts were sufficiently similar to each other to warrant the<br />

interpretation that we are talking about a single universe of texts. In statistical<br />

terms, since corpora are always samples, the question is whether they could<br />

have been drawn from the same population. We do not have entirely reliable<br />

statistical measures of overall differences or similarity in corpora yet (although<br />

for instance Kilgarriff is developing means for doing this, see Kilgarriff 2001),<br />

and before we do, we cannot address the question directly on an empirical<br />

basis. But I shall be exploring one possibility for such comparison a little later<br />

on (see, Section 6 below).

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