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Body and Soul in Ancient Philosophy

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28<br />

Carl Huffman<br />

these Greeks but will not record them. 20 Given the early <strong>and</strong> persistent<br />

association of Pythagoras with the doctr<strong>in</strong>e, however, it is overwhelm<strong>in</strong>gly<br />

likely that he is one of the people meant. Herodotus may be th<strong>in</strong>k<strong>in</strong>g<br />

of him as the earlier figure <strong>and</strong> Empedocles as the later or perhaps he<br />

means Pythagoreans <strong>and</strong> Orphics.<br />

Before turn<strong>in</strong>g to Pythagoras though, there is still a l<strong>in</strong>ger<strong>in</strong>g question<br />

regard<strong>in</strong>g fragment 13 of Philolaus. The parallel with Herodotean<br />

usage suggests that Philolaus thought of the psychÞ as a center of emotions.<br />

Did he also th<strong>in</strong>k that it was the transmigrat<strong>in</strong>g soul? Scholars<br />

have been divided on whether he believed <strong>in</strong> transmigration at all,<br />

<strong>and</strong> the evidence does not permit a def<strong>in</strong>ite answer. 21 There are two<br />

reasons for th<strong>in</strong>k<strong>in</strong>g that he did believe <strong>in</strong> transmigration. First, the prohibition<br />

on suicide ascribed to him <strong>in</strong> Plato’s Phaedo might reasonably be<br />

expla<strong>in</strong>ed on the grounds that suicide illegitimately <strong>in</strong>terferes with the<br />

work<strong>in</strong>gs of the cycle of transmigrations. Second, Philolaus is consistently<br />

called a Pythagorean <strong>and</strong>, s<strong>in</strong>ce there is little evidence that his cosmology<br />

<strong>and</strong> metaphysical pr<strong>in</strong>ciples were derived from Pythagoras, it is<br />

likely that he was called a Pythagorean because he lived a Pythagorean<br />

way of life <strong>and</strong> that way of life is likely to have been grounded <strong>in</strong> a belief<br />

20 Why does Herodotus refuse to name the Greeks who claimed the Egyptian<br />

doctr<strong>in</strong>e of metempsychôsis as their own? Some suggest that he does not want<br />

to glorify such malefactors by cit<strong>in</strong>g their name (Harrison 2000, 184, n. 8),<br />

but it could also be that he does not explicitly name them <strong>in</strong> order to make<br />

his remarks less offensive to the followers of those accused. S<strong>in</strong>ce there is no<br />

<strong>in</strong>dependent evidence for a belief <strong>in</strong> metempsychôsis <strong>in</strong> Egypt, most scholars,<br />

e.g., Lloyd 1993, 59, assume that Herodotus is mistaken <strong>in</strong> th<strong>in</strong>k<strong>in</strong>g that the<br />

Greeks borrowed it from Egypt, but we are not <strong>in</strong> a position to know all the<br />

variants of Egyptian religious belief, <strong>and</strong> West (1971, 62) argues that we should<br />

accept Herodotus’ testimony.<br />

21 Noth<strong>in</strong>g <strong>in</strong> the fragments of his book provides us with evidence that Philolaus<br />

believed <strong>in</strong> transmigration but, <strong>in</strong> the Phaedo (61d), Plato presents him as forbidd<strong>in</strong>g<br />

suicide, which might suggest that he did. As to Philolaus’ reasons for<br />

this prohibition, however, Cebes simply says that he had heard noth<strong>in</strong>g clear<br />

from Philolaus on the topic. Socrates’ explanation of what he has heard <strong>in</strong> secret<br />

about the matter, that our lives are a sort of prison sentence from which we<br />

must not run away without the approval of the gods, is certa<strong>in</strong>ly not ascribed<br />

to Philolaus, as Guthrie suggested it was (1962, 310). Indeed, if this was<br />

known to be Philolaus’ view, it is <strong>in</strong>explicable that Plato would <strong>in</strong>stead leave<br />

us with Cebes’ assertion that he had heard noth<strong>in</strong>g clear from him on the<br />

issue. Still Guthrie (1962, 310 – 311) reasonably asks why Philolaus should prohibit<br />

suicide if not for someth<strong>in</strong>g like “the characteristically Orphico-Pythagorean<br />

reasons which follow <strong>in</strong> the dialogue”?

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